1. Choose medication to treat diphtheria:

2. The drug injected intradermally for determening the delayed-type hypersensitivity in case of tuberculesis is ###

3. Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between species of microorganisms and sensitive laboratory animals: 1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis; 2) Mycobacterium bovis;3) Mycobacterium leprae;

4. Choose biomaterials used for microbiological diagnostics of leprosy:

5. Choose main clinical forms of leprosy ###, ###

6. Choose characteristics of family Enterobacteriaceae:

7. Fermentation of ### is typical for all members of Enterobacteriacea family.

8. What is the main laboratory diagnostic method for determination of acute intestinal infections caused by members of Enterobacteriaceae

9. What genus of Enterobacteriaceae causes typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, gastroenteritis and septicaemias in humans? ###

10. The natural reservoir of Salmonella Typhi bacteria is ###.

11. Specific syndrome at an the first stage of typhoid fever (increased temperature and confusions) is observed during bacteremia and caused by ### of bacteria.

12. What are possible routes of tuberculosis transmission?

13. What is the differential staining method for determining Mycobacterium genus?

14. What is the reason of Mycobacteria acid-resistance during staining procedures?

15. The crucial virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis containing in the cell wall is ###, ###

16. What Mycobacterium species is unable to grow on any nutrient medium (Latin name ###, ###)?

17. Choose methods for tuberculosis diagnostics:

18. Choose the source of infection of typhoid fever:

19. The reservoir of shigellosis causative agents is ###.

20. In human body Shigella species invade epithelial lining of ### ### causing erosions and ulcers formation.

21. Choose characteristics of dysentery causative agents:

22. In human body, dysentery pathogens (Shigella) are found:

23. What selective media is used for isolation of Salmonella bacteria from feces? ### ### ###

24. Choose pathogenic factors of diarrheagenic Escherichia coli:

25. Choose features of Shigella bacteria virulence:

26. Choose criteria of dividing Escherichia coli species into categories:

27. What is the role of non-pathogenic Escherichia coli stains normally living in the human intestine:

28. Diarrheagenic Escherichia coli stains can be divided into several categories: enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic, enterohemorrhagic, enteroaggregative and ###.

29. Colonization factor and cholerogen-like enterotoxin are typical pathogenic factors of ### E. coli category.

30. Choose cholera causative agents:

31. All morphological characteristics of Vibrio cholerae are correct except:

33. Choose biomaterials used for accelerated determining of cholera pathogens using RIF test:

34. What is the role of Vibrio cholerae О139 in human pathology:

35. What is the role of specific secretory IgA in the organism of the patient with cholera:

36. Vibrio cholerae strains relate to the germ causing cholera by:

37. Choose the feature that is not typical for Clostridium botulinum:

38. Routes of botulism transmission are foodborne and ### transmission.

39. The major factors of botulism transmission are:

40. The major virulence factor of Clostridium botulinumis ###

41. Choose the biomaterial that is not used for botulism tests:

42. Blood of the patient with suspected botulism is tested to detect the presence of ###:

43. Choose medication that is used for emergency prevention of botulism:

44. For botulism serotherapy do not use:

45. The major factors of gastrointestinal tract dysbiosis are:

46. Plague pathogens are:

47. Virulence factors of plague bacteria are:

48. Cultural properties of anthrax causative agents are:

49. Complex exotoxin (consisting of lethal factor, edema factor, and protective antigen) and presence of capsule are virulence factors of ### ###(Latin name).

50. What are routes of anthrax transmission to humans:

51. Choose the biomaterials used for laboratory diagnostics of anthrax:

52. What is the earlier method of tularemia diagnostics?

53. Choose the method of specific prevention of tularemia:

54. Healthy people get infected from the patients with tularemia:

55. Select brucellosis causative agents:

56. Among the living organisms ### cannot be the reservoir of brucella

57. Select the impossible route of brucellosis transmission:

58. Brucellosis pathogens in lymphoid-macrophage system do the following:

59. Choose method that is not used for brucellosis diagnostics:

60. What is the purpose of Wright test (agglutination reaction):

61. Morphologically Leptospira bacteria are:

62. ### can have S- or C-curved shape due to secondary curves presence

63. Morphologically ### bacteria are thin spiral microorganisms with 3-8 large uneven curls and pointed ends.

64. The main virulence factor of Borrelia causing the relapsing fever is ###

63. Select disease caused by spirochetes:

64. Select disease that is not caused by spirochetes:

65. The reservoir of causative agents of epidemic relapsing fever is ###.

66. Select pathogens of Lyme disease:

67. The vectors of Lyme disease is ### ###

68. The main method of relapsing fever diagnostics is ###

69. What clinical biomaterials are used for relapsing fever diagnostics? ###

70. All spirochetes are Gram-###.

71. Out of all spirochetes the ### pathogens are less subjected to staining with aniline dyes.

72. Morphologically ### bacteria are thin spirals with 8-12 even curls.

73. What are reservoirs of syphilis infections? ###

74. Typical symptom of secondary syphilis is:

75. Gumma, tabes dorsalis, progressive paralysis are characteristics of ### period of syphilis.

76. Select serological reaction that is not used for syphilis diagnostics in seropositive period:

77. Select the medication for specific prevention of syphilis:

78. Select the medication for specific prevention of anthrax:

79. Gonococci are Gram-### bacteria

80. The major route of gonorrhea transmission is ###

81. The main method of gonoblenorrhea diagnostics is ###

82. What is the major transmission route of newborns gonoblenorrhea infection?

83. What is the main method of microbiological diagnostics of acute gonorrhea?

84. What is the main method of chronic gonorrhea diagnostics?

85. Select the reason of complete dependence of chlamidya from the host cells:

86. Severe, generalized, acute or chronic febrile state with pathogens multiplication in the blood and lymphatic systems is called:

87. Staphylococci do not cause:

88. Staphylococci bacteria have ### ### type of respiration.

89. Staphylococci bacteria grow in liquid cultural media in the form of:

90. Choose elective nutrient media for Staphylococcus species:

91. Choose addition to egg-yolk salt agar that provides elective conditions for Staphylococcus species:

92. What Staphylococcus aureus toxin does newborn pemphigus (scalded skin syndrome) cause ? ###

93. What is the main method of Staphylococcus infections diagnostics? ###

94. A set of type-specific staphylococcal ### is used for intra-species typing of Staphylococcus aureus strains of human origin.

95. Gram-positive cocci with plasmocoagulase isolated from pus can be identified as ### ### (Latin name):

96. What biomaterials are used for bacteriological diagnostics of Staphylococcus infections:

97. Streptococcus species do not cause:

98. Round-shaped, Gram-positive, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobic, catalase-negative, non-motile, chains in smears are characteristics of ### bacteria

99. What type of hemolysis on blood agar is typical for most of Streptococcus pyogenes strains? ###

100. What type of hemolysis on blood agar is typical for most of Streptococcus pneumonia strains? ###

101. ### is virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes causing death of polymorphic nuclear leukocytes and macrophages.

102. ### is virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes that is formed in vivo and protects it from phagocytosis.

103. Streptococcus pyogenes caused Scarlet fever differs from other Streptococci of serogroup A in ### toxin producing

104. The major pathogen of gas anaerobic infection is:

105. Clostridium perfringens bacteria differ from other gas clostridia pathogens in ### absence

106. Clostridium perfringens bacteria in addition to essential structures have:

107. ### ### is used for emergency prevention and specific therapy of gas gangrene.

108. The major source of infection of Clostridium tetani is:

109. Tetanus causative agents have ### type of respiration.

110. Choose medications that are used for specific prevention of tetanus:

111. Choose medication that is used for passive emergency prevention of tetanus:

112. Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between species of microorganisms and cell form and spore location: 1). Clostridium perfringens 2). Clostridium botulinum 3). Clostridium tetani

113. Choose possible reservoirs of meningococcal infection :

114. What is the major reservoir of meningococcal infections? ###-###

115. Choose characteristics of Meningococci:

116. Meningococci have ### type of respiration.

117. Bordetella pertussis bacteria have ### type of respiration.

118. Choose microbiological methods of meningococcal disease diagnostics:

119. What biomaterial is used for laboratory microbiological diagnostics of meningococcemia? ###

120. What biomaterial is used for laboratory determining of meningococcal bacteria-carriage? ###

121. What pathological biomaterial is used for laboratory meningococcal meningitis diagnostics? ### ###

123. Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between meningococcal disease and pathological biomaterial taken for laboratory diagnosis:1) Meningococcemia 2) Nasopharyngitis, meningococcal-carriage 3) Meningitis

124. The Pertussis causative agents are:

125. Select biotop of whooping cough causative agents:

126. What is the transmission route of whooping cough? ###

127. Select biochemical activity of Bordetella pertussis:

128. Microcapsule, fimbriae, pertactin, endotoxin and tracheal cytotoxin, adenylate cyclase and filamentous hemagglutinin are virulence factors of ### ### (Latin name) bacteria.

129. Choose the major methods of pertussis diagnistics:

130. ### method is used for pertussis diagnostics during the 1-st week.

131. What pathological biomaterial is used for bacteriological method of pertussis diagnostics?

132. Choose the medication that is used for specific prevention of pertussis:

133. Choose diphtheria pathogens biovars:

134. Choose morphological characteristics of diphtheria causative agents:

135. What is the major route of diphteria transmission?

136. In smears Corynebacterium diphtheriae stains are situated:

137. Diphteria pathogens are club-shaped due to presence of ### granules at the cell poles.

138. Corynebacterium diphtheriae gravis on tellurite blood agar grow as:

139. Corynebacterium diphtheriae mitis on tellurite blood agar grow in the form of

140. Diphteria toxin causes:

141. What is the major method of microbiological diagnostics of diphtheria? ###

142. Choose localization of the pathological processes which do not caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria bacteria:

143. Choose the differential diagnostic test in bacteriological diagnostics of the disease “diphtheria”:

144. ### reaction is used for enterobacteria serotyping.

145. Lactose fermentation is typical for:

145. O-antigenes of enterobacteria are ### according their chemical structure.

146. H-antigenes of enterobacteria are ### according their chemical structure.

147. What enterobacteria genus includes resident bacteria of human body microbiota?

148. Enterobacteria species are Gram-###.

149. Enterobacteria have ###-shaped cells.

150. Choose enterobacteria respiration type:

151. All enterobacteria species can utilize:

152. Pathogenic E. coli strains differ from opportunistic E. coli strains in:

153. Clinics and pathogenesis of diseases caused by enteroinvasive E. coli are similar to clinics and pathogenesis of ###.

154. Clinics and pathogenesis of diseases caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli are similar to ### clinics and pathogenesis.

155. What antigen does define the serogroups of E.coli? ### (letter)

156. What is the major method of shigelosis diagnostics? ###

157. The causative agents of bacillary dysentery belong to ### genus.

158. What is binomial Latin name of Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococcus causing venereal diseases? ### ###

159. What is binomial Latin name of food poisoning pathogens resembling tennis racket, with subterminal-located spores? ### ###

160. What is binomial Latin name of trachoma (person-to-person conjuctivitis) pathogen forming elementary and reticular bodies? ### ###

161. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of ricketsiosis transmitted by lice? ### ###

162. What is binomial Latin name of Gram-negative diplococci that cause meningitis? ### ###

163. What is binomial Latin name of typhoid fever germ that do not produce gas when hemoculture is isolated on liquid (Rappaport) medium? ### ###

164. What is binomial Latin name of bubonic type of infection pathogen that have “safety pin”-shape and spread by rodents? ### ###

165. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of disease characterized by sudden dehydration and rice-water stool? ### ###

166. What is binomial Latin name of Mycobacterium species causing generalized primary chronic disease discovered by G.А.Hansen? It does not grow on cultural media.### ###

167. What is binomial Latin name of spore- and capsula-forming streptobacillus that causes disease characterized by carbuncles with brown-black crust? ### ###

168. What is binomial Latin name of pathogen that has gram-positive club-shaped form and can be finally determined by positive cystinase test? ### ###

169. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of disease diagnosed by tularinum allergic reaction? ### ###

170. What is binomial Latin name of pathogens that can be determined by Wright-Huddleson serological reaction? Pathogens are small gram-negative coccobacilli transmitted by sheep and goats and never by human. ### ###

171. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of visceral leishmaniasis? ### ###

172. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of amoebiasis? ### ###

173. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of toxoplasmosis?

1. What is the Latin name of HIV genus? ###

2. Influenza virus ultra-structure includes:

3. Choose the major antigens of influenza virus types A and B:

4. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza virus are ### located antigens.

5. Ribonucleoprotein (RNP) and M-matrix protein of influenza virus are ### located antigens.

6. Choose properties of hemagglutinin (H-antigen) of influenza virus:

8. Influenza A virus caused human diseases is divided into subtypes, except:

9. What test is used to determine types of influenza virus? ### ###

10. Choose features of immune response to influenza after vaccination:

11. Pandemics, epidemics are caused by influenza virus type ###. (letter)

12. Local outbreaks are caused by influenza virus type ###.(letter)

13. Sporadic diseases are caused by influenza virus type ###.(letter)

14. Laboratory diagnostics of influenza virus do not include:

15. Biomaterials that used for viroscopical and virological diagnostics of influenza ### swabs.

16. Choose biomaterials that are used for serological diagnostics of influenza?

17. Choose medication that is used for active specific prevention of influenza:

18. Measles virus contains a negative-sense spiral single-stranded ### (abbreviation of nucleic acid type).

19. Antigens of measles virus show

20. What is not the characteristic of measles virus:

21. Measles virus can cause cytopathlogical effect during cultivation in cellular cultures such as ### formation.

22. Such complications as multiple sclerosis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can develop several years after ### infection.

23. Choose medication that is used for active prevention of measles in Russia:

24. Polioviruses , Coxsackievirus and ECHO virus belong to the genus ### in the family Picornaviridae.

25. Choose morphological and chemical characteristics of polioviruses:

26. List the types of poliovirus: ###, ###, ###

27. Choose the impossible route of poliomyelitis transmission:

28. Poliovirus is most likely to be isolated from ###

29. Select characteristics of immunity in case of poliomyelitis:

30. Live vaccine for poliomyelitis prevention is given ###.

31. Choose vaccine for active specific prevention of enterovirus infections that is not invited:

32. Choose virus that is not causative agent of viral hepatitis:

34. Choose methods that are used for hepatitis A diagnostics:

35. What type of hepatitis virus belongs to the family of Hepadnaviruses, contains DNA, is transmitted parenterally, is not cultivated in cell culture, is oncogenic: ### (letter)

36. HBs antigen of hepatitis B virus is ### located antigen.

37. All characteristics of hepatitis B virus are correct, exept:

38. Select characteristics of immuty in case of hepatitis B:

39. Hepatitis D virus superinfection occurs in the presence of hepatitis ### (letter) virus.

40. The rabies virus belongs to Lyssavirus genus in the ### family.

41. A negative-sense single-stranded unfragmented RNA, nucleocapsid with spiral symmetry, outer-shell, capsid proteins and matrix proteins, RNA-polymerase, glycoprotein and a bullet shape are characteristics of ### virus.

42. What is not the reservoir of Rabies virus in nature:

43. Rabies virus can be transmitted throught ### of infected animal.

44. Rabies incubation period when the virus penetrates through head and face skin is:

45. Special cylinders virus promotion from sensitive peripheral nerves endings to perineural spaces and brain and spinal cord neurons and virus reproduction in neurons with formation of Babesh-Negrie cytoplasmic inclusions play significant role in pathogenesis of ### infection.

46. “Fixed” rabies virus invented by Pasteur for vaccination differs from wild rabies virus in (all are correct exclude):

47. Choose indications for antirabic immunoglobulin treatment:

48. HIV genome includes two single-strand ### molecules. (abbreviation)

49. HIV virion membrane contains glycoproteins gp with molecular masses of ### and ###.

50. Gp 120 of HIV virion attaches to the human cell membrane in the presence of ### receptor on its surfase.

51. HIV penetration to the cell cannot be achieved by:

52. HIV infection specifically affects ### system of the organism.

53. What are impossible routes of HIV transmission? ###, ###

54. Choose cells that are not HIV target-cells:

55. Choose biomaterials that contains insufficient amount of HIV:

56. The goal of HIV infection therapy is:

57. Name the form of a virus that exists outside the host cell: ###

58. Phased papular rash is the characteristic of ### virus infection.

59. ### type of virus and eukaryotic cell interaction can be characterized by viral DNA integration into the chromosome of the cell.

60. What Ag is the major marker of hepatitis B infection?###

61. What causative agents of infectious diseases do not have cellular structure?

62. What Family of viruses contain virions with reverse transcriptase? ###

63. HIV is tropic for ### subpopulations of T-lymphocytes.

64. What laboratory test is the most reliable test in HIV infection determination, an "expert" technique? ###

65. Choose the reason of liver cells cytolysis in case of viral hepatitis B:

66. Chronization of pathological process causing cirrhosis is characteristic of viral hepatitis ###.

67. Choose characteristic of antigenic drift of influenza pathogens:

69. The productive interaction of the virus with the cell results in ### for the cell.

70. Influenza viruses are mostly cultivated on ### ###.

71. ### test is used to determine influenza virus in infected chicken embryos.

72. What infection disease may be complicated with orchitis in boys?

73. Damage of medulla oblongata motor neurons and the front horns of spinal cord is typical for ### pathogenesis.

74. Poliomyelitis vaccine injection provides prevention of ### forms of infection.

75. What type of nucleiс acid is typical for hepatitis B virus? ### (abbreviation)

76. Hepatitis C virus belongs to ### family.

77. What type of nucleiс acid presents in hepatitis C virus? ### (abbreviation)

78. Hepatitis C virus can hide from immune system due to its high ###.

79. Multiyear latent progress is characteristic of hepatitis ### virus infection. (letter)

80. What type of hepatitis virus requires assistance of helper-virus? ### (letter)

81. What is the reservoir of parental virus hepatitis? ###

82. Gp120 and gp41 are antigens of ### virus. (abbreviation)

83. What HIV antigen provides interaction with target-cells? ###

84. Indication of HIV infection is required ### determination.

85. What type of nucleiс acid presents in influenza virus? ### (abbreviation)

86. Hepatitis B virus testing of donated blood is carrying out through ### antigen determination.

87. What is the major route of hepatitis A virus transmission?###-###

88. Bacteriophages that lyse only one group of bacteria within the species are called ### bacteriophages

89. Choose ferments of HIV pol-complex:

90. Choose the measles symptoms:

91. What is not typical for hepatitis D virus:

92. Choose the virus that can be isolated from the feces 3 weeks after infection:

93. What ferment presents in the core of the influenza virus?

94. Hydro- and aerophobia, hallucinations, alternation of excitement and depression are the features of ###

1. Diploid number of chromosomes, nuclear membrane, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, nucleolus and histone proteins are characteristics of ### microorganisms.

2. Choose main groups of microorganisms that belong to prokaryotes:

3. Definition of morphological, tinctorial, enzymatic, antigenic, cultural, and bacteriophage sensitivity properties is used for ### of microorganisms’ species.

4. Choose method that is not used for infectious disease diagnostics in medical microbiology:

5. Fixation of microorganisms to the glass during microscope slide preparation is used for:

6. A single chromosome, peptidoglycan, a binary type of division and absence of nuclear membrane are characteristics of ###.

7, What essential component of bacterial cell is responsible for storing genetic information and cell division?

1. Nucleoid, cytoplasm, cytoplasmic membrane, mesosomas, ribosomes are essential structures of ### cell:

2. Choose essential components providing vital activity of bacterial cell:

3. Choose non-motile microorganisms:

4. Bacterial ### are built from protein called flagellin.

5. According to location of flagella the fastest group of flagellated microorganisms is ###.

6. According to location of flagella the slowest group of flagellated microorganisms is ###.

7. Choose basic forms of microorganisms:

8. Choose bacteria that are not spherical (cocci):

9. Meningicocci of ### genus are diplococci.

10. In microscopic slides Streptococci are arranged in ###.

11. In microscope slides Staphylococci are arranged:

12. Choose rod-shaped microorganisms:

13. In microscope slides ### causative agents are arranged in bamboo-sticks.

14. Treponema, Borrelia and Leptospira have ### morphological shape.

15. What structure of the bacterial cell have following functions: permeability, osmotic barrier, transport, mesosoma formation, participation in metabolism and sporulation? ### ###

16. The maintenance of cell shape of bacteria is provided by ### ### of the cell.

17. Choose noncorrect characteristics of L-form of microorganisms:

18. The difference of bacteria in Gram staining is due to chemical composition and structure of ### ###.

19. What substance (bioheteropolymer) is the basis of bacteria cell walls?

20. Choose chemical components of cellular wall of Gram-negative microorganisms:

21. Choose chemical components of cellular wall of Gram-positive microorganisms:

22. The mechanism of Gram-negative bacteria staining includes:

23. The mechanism of Gram-positive bacteria staining includes:

24. Choose substance that is not used in Gram staining method:

25. Choose substances forming complex that cannot be washed out of peptidoglycan during staining of Gram-positive microorganisms:

26. Choose Gram-negative cocci:

27. Choose Gram-positive microorganisms:

28. Choose Gram-negative microorganisms:

29. Gram-positive rods placed at an angle to each other forming letters X and Y is characteristic of ### infection causative agents.

30. Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species, shape and Gram staining:1) Treponema pallidum, 2) Vibrio cholerae, 3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

31. Choose acid-fast microorganisms:

32. What property of microbial cells is due to high content of lipids, wax, phtionic acids, mycolinic, mycolic acids and tuberculostearinic acids in the cell wall? ### ###

33. Choose substances used during Ziel-Neelson staining:

34. During Ziel-Neelson staining, carbolic fuchsine and heating are used to:

35. What component of the bacterial cell, when stained by Burri-Gins, appears as colorless bezel around the red bodies of the bacteria in black background? ###

36. The functions of bacterial ### are protection from drying, phagocytosis and antibodies action.

37. Choose possible materials of bacterial capsule:

38. Capsules of most of the microorganisms consist of ###.

39. Microcapsule differs from macrocapsule in:

40. Choose characteristics of macrocapsule (true capsule):

41. Choose characteristics of Burry-Gins staining:

42. Choose substances used during Burry-Gins staining:

43. ### in bacterial cells are components which are responsible for energy and nutrients storing.

44. Diphtheria rods contain volutine grains:

45. Choose microorganisms which are not obligate intracellular parasites:

46. Chlamydia and Rickettsia are obligating intracellular parasites because:

47. Choose structural components that Rickettsia do not have:

48. Choose disease that is caused by Rickettsia:

49. Choose characteristics of Chlamydia infection causative agents:

50. Choose functions of bacterial spores:

51. Choose bacteria spore-forming conditions:

52. Minimal content of free water, high lipid content, high content of calcium salts, the presence of dipicolinic acid determine the stability of the ### of bacteria in the environment.

53. What group of bacteria (according their shape) can form spores?

54. Choose microorganisms that cannot form spores:

55. Choose microorganisms that can form spores:

56. Rod-shaped spore-forming microorganisms include both ### and ###.

57. Name the Genus of spore-forming microorganisms with spore smaller than a bacterial cell in diameter. ###

58. Name the Genus of spore-forming microorganisms with spore bigger than a bacterial cell in diameter. ###

59. Name the microorganisms (in Latin) with terminal- located spore. ### ###

60. Choose bacteria with subterminal-located (rarely central) spore bigger that a cell diameter:

61. 67. Bacteria of Genus ### have central-located spore smaller than bacteria diameter that don't deform the cell.

62. Choose structural components that Spirochetes do not have:

63. Spirochetes move due to:

64. Name Spirochetes genus (Latin) that is characterized by numerous primary curls and the secondary curls in the forms of letters S and C. ###

65. Name Spirochetes genus (Latin) that is characterized by 3-10 large uneven curls. ###

66. Name Spirochetes genus (Latin) that is characterized by 8-12 small even curls. ###

67. Name Spirochetes genus that shows pale pink color in Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ###

68. Name Spirochetes genus that shows blue-purple color in Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ###

69. Human pathogenic Spirochetes belong to Treponema, Borrelia and ### genera.

70. Choose Treponema species that is pathogenic for human:

71. Syphilis, relapsing fever, leptospirosis are diseases caused by pathogenic ###.

72. A culture of microorganisms of the same species obtained from a single bacterial cell is called ### ###.

73. A species population isolated from different sources or from one object at different times is called ###.

74. ### ### is a set of individuals of the same species of microbes grown on nutrient medium.

75.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species, shape and bacteria arrangement in a smear: 1) Neisseria meningitidis, 2) Bacillus anthracis, 3) Staphylococcus epidermidis

76.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and Gram staining:1) Vibrio cholera, 2) Treponema pallidum, 3) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

77.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and spore location:1)Clostridium perfringens, 2) Bacillus anthracis, 3) Clostridium tetani, 4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

78.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and capsule:1) Staphylococcus aureus, 2) Bacillus anthracis, 3) Neisseria meningitides, 4) Vibrio cholerae

79.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and disease: 1) Coxiella burneti, 2) Salmonella Typhi, 3) Borrelia recurrentis

80.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and bacteria arrangement in a smear: 1) E. coli, 2) Corinebacterium diphtheriae, 3) Streptococcus pyogenes, 4) Neisseria meningitidis

81.Установите соответствие Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and means of motility:1) Spirochetes, 2) Vibrio, 3) Chlamydia

82. The main tasks of medical Microbiology:

83. Choose characteristics of microorganisms that are not in the basis of modern taxonomy:

84. Choose microbes:

85. Choose cellular microorganisms:

86. Domain “Eucarya” (eukaryotes) includes:

87. Choose prokaryotic domains:

88. Choose main functions of bacterial spore:

89. What method is used for capsule detection? ###-###

90. Choose organiods that prokaryotic cells do not have:

91. Choose functions of intracellular inclusions of bacterial cells:

92. Flagella are built from protein called ###.

93. Acid-fast bacteria are detected with ###-### method.

94. In Burri-Gins method bacterial capsules are stained:

95. In Ziehl-Neelsen method acid-fast bacteria are stained ### color.

96. The main chemical component of bacterial cell’s cytoplasmic membrane is ###.

97. Optical microscope provides a magnification of bacteria in:

98. In immersion microscopy objective lens of ### magnification are used.

99. ### is applied on microscopic slide to work with microscope immersion system.

100. What type of microscope is used to distinguish cellular structures with nanometric size?

101. Immersion oil is used for ### magnification.

102. The cell wall of Gram-### bacteria contains 1 layer of peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharides.

103. Staining of bacteria by Gram is due to ### ### presence.

104. Gram-negative bacteria partially without cell wall and unable to reproduce in vitro are called ###.

105. Choose unessential component of bacterial cell:

106. Choose characteristics of smear preparation:

107. Discoloration by ### is the stage of Gram staining that allows to different bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative.

108. Spherical bacteria arranged in chains are called ###.

109. Spherical bacteria arranged grape-like clusters are called ###

110. Choose spore-forming bacteria:

111. In Gram staining Gram-negative bacteria are stained in ### color.

112. Spherical bacteria arranged in bales or packages are called ###.

113. Existence in the form of elementary and reticular cells and reproduction only within the host cell are characteristics of ###.

114. Undulating membrane, cilia and pseudopodia are motile organelles of ###.

115. ### causative agents have the highest speed among bacteria.

116. The body of a fungus composed of interwoven threads (hyphae) is called ###.

117. Higher fungi are those haved ### mycelium.

118. Single-celled fungi round shaped are called ###.

119. Name Gram-positive soil bacteria growing in the form of thin filaments resembling the fungi mycelium; they are mostly antibiotics producers. ###

120. ### species differ from most of bacteria in cell wall absence.

121. Name bacteria these are obligate intracellular parasites causing eyes and urogenital tract lesions in humans. ###

122. The mobility of the most of bacteria is due to ### presence.

123. The purposes of ### are attaching of the smear to the glass, killing bacteria and making them more susceptible to a dye.

124. The presence of a differentiated nucleus is not typical for ###.

125. Unlike Gram-positive bacteria, Gram-negative bacteria do not have ### acids in the cell wall.

126. What is the main taxon of prokaryotes including the organisms with the most similar qualities? ###

127. Within the species microorganisms cannot differ in:

128. The bundle of shrinking fibers extending along the microbial cells in the periplasmic space and performing supporting and locomotor functions is characteristic of ### bacteria.

129. Amphitricha are bacteria with bipolar located ###.

130. Organelle that is found at the base of flagellum is called ### ###.

131. Mycosis is infectious disease caused by pathogenic ###.

132. Protein-like infectious particles without nucleic acids are called ###.

133. Sporulation is the way of ### of fungi.

134. Choose features of conditionally pathogenic microorganisms (compared with the pathogenic microorganisms):

135. Essential component of bacterial cell consisting of colloid phase, DNA, RNA and ribosomes is called ###.

136. What shapes of bacteria can sporulate?

137. Mycota is a scientific name of ###.

138. Choose characteristics of viruses:

139. Viruses differ from bacteria in:

140. Choose characteristics of virion:

141. Virion is:

142. Choose characteristics of simple viruses:

143. Choose characteristics of complex viruses:

144. Viral reproduction is based on:

145. Choose growth media for viruses:

146. Choose the main pathogenic factor of Gram-negative bacteria:

147. Choose the main pathogenic factor of Gram-positive bacteria:

148. Choose the measure of the microorganisms pathogenicity :

149. Choose possible sources of infection:

150. Choose the term characterized by pathogens circulation in the bloodstream:

151. Choose the term characterized by pathogens circulation and reproduction in the bloodstream:

152. Repeated symptoms of infectious disease caused by the same pathogen without repeated infection is called:

153. Choose the main pathogenicity factors of Gram-negative bacteria:

154. Choose the main pathogenicity factors of Gram-positive bacteria:

155. Repeated infection caused by the same pathogen:

156. It is necessary for all nutritious media to have:

157. Name the microbes requiring the presence of 20 % oxygen in the environment. ###

158. Name the microbes that exist only in anoxic conditions. ###

159. Choose impossible mechanism of nutrients transport into the cell:

160. Choose microorganisms that must be cultivated in anaerostat:

161. Choose process with bacteriophage participation:

162. Choose treatment that do not use for sterilization:

163. Choose treatment that is used to sterilize disposable instruments in industry:

164. Choose bacteria that are not sanitary significant microbes of water:

165. Choose antibiotics violating the synthesis of peptidoglycan:

166. Choose fluoroquinolones action mechanism:

167. The first antibiotic – penicillin –was discovered by:

168. Choose organelles of prokaryotic cell:

169. The morphological study of bacteria requires:

170. Choose essential components of bacterial cell:

171. Choose main morphological groups of bacteria:

172. Choose basis of medical important cocci classification:

173. Choose characteristics of Streptococci:

174. Choose characteristics of Bacillus species:

175. Choose characteristics of smear preparation:

176. Choose characteristics of bacterial cell:

177. Choose inclusions of microbial cell:

178. Choose characteristics of cytoplasmic membrane:

179. Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacteria due to:

180. Choose stain method that is used to detect acid-fast bacteria:

181. Choose bacilli spore significance:

182. Choose sporulation conditions:

183. Choose types of bacteria that involve spore-forming species:

184. Choose diseases that are caused by spore-forming causative agents:

185. Such qualities as absence of growth and binary fission possibility, one type of nucleic acid, absolute intracellular parasitism are characteristics of Kingdom ###

186. Virion of 42 nm in size is characteristic of ### ### virus.

187. What does not present into simple virus components?###

188. Formation of Filatov-Koplik spots inside the mouth mucosa is characteristic of ### (disease).

189. The structure of a complex virion includes all, except:

190. The type of virion’s capsid symmetry when capsomeres follow the curves of nucleic acid is called ###.

191. The type of virion’s capsid symmetry when capsomeres surround nucleic acid in polyhedron shape is called ###.

192. Positive RNA genome (RNA+) of viruses act during infection as:

193. Reverse transcriptase, RNA-asa and DNA- polymerase are enzymes of the ### Family.

194. Установите верную последовательность The sequence of interaction of the virus with the cell and the reproductive process is 1). Adsorption; 2). Replication of viral genome and Synthesis of viral Proteins; 3). Release of viral particles from the cells; 4). Virion assembly; 5). Penetration of the virus into the cell; 6). Deproteinization of virion.

195. Membranes fusion or endocytosis are the ways of penetration of the ### into host cells.

196. Name the cells’ protein that is formed under the influence of an interferonogene (virus, etc.) and protect cells from viral infection.

197. Interferon protects cells from the viral infection by:

198. Choose method that do not use for laboratory diagnostics of viral infections:

199. Установите верную последовательность The sequence of the stages of interaction of phages with bacterial cell: 1). Adsorption; 2). replication of nucleic acid; 3). release of Mature particles; 4) syntesis of phages proteins; 5) penetration of phages genom

200. ### penetrates into bacterial cell by injecting the nucleic acid through the appendage channel.

201. The interaction of bacteriophage with bacterial cell, resulting in bacteriophage DNA embedding in the bacterial genome is called ### type of infection.

202. A productive type of infection, resulting in formation of phage progeny and lysis of the bacteria is characteristic of ### bacteriophage.

203. Integrative type of infection with the formation of a prophage is characteristic of ### bacteriophage.

204. Choose impossible way of bacteriophages practical application:

205. Choose disease that is not treated with bacteriophage medication:

206. ### is used with epidemiological purpose to establish the source of infection using bacteriophages.

207. Influenza virus ultrastructure includes:

208. Choose the major antigens of influenza virus types A and B:

209. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza virus are ### located antigens.

210. Nucleoprotein (NP) and M-matrix protein of influenza virus are ### located antigens.

211. Choose properties of hemagglutinin (H-antigen) of influenza virus:

212. What types of influenza virus do you know? ###, ###, ###

213. Influenza A virus is divided into subtypes, except:

214. What test is used to determine of types of influenza virus?

215. Choose features of immune response to influenza:

216. Pandemics and epidemics are mostly caused by influenza virus type ###.

217. Epidemics and local outbreaks are mostly caused by influenza virus type ###.

218. Sporadic diseases are caused by influenza virus type ###.

219. What biomaterials are used for viroscopical and virological diagnostics of influenza? ### ###

220. Choose biomaterials that are used for serological diagnostics of influenza?

221. Choose medication that is used for active specific prevention of influenza:

222. Measles virus contains a negative-sense spiral single-stranded ###.

223. Antigens of measles virus according to variability are:

224. What is not the characteristic of the measles virus:

225. Cytopathogenic effect of measles virus cultivated in cell cultures is ### formation

226. Slow infections, multiple sclerosis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can develop several years after ### infection

227. Choose medication that is used for active prevention of measles in Russia

228. Polioviruses , Coxsackieviruses and ECHO viruses belong to the genus ### in the family ###.

229. Choose characteristics of polioviruses:

230. What are the types of poliovirus?###, ###, ###

231. Choose the impossible route of poliomyelitis transmission:

232. Poliovirus is most likely to be isolated from ###.

233. Select characteristics of immunity in case of poliomyelitis:

234. Live vaccine for poliomyelitis prevention is given ### ### (Latin term).

235. Choose vaccine for active specific prevention of enterovirus infections that is not developed:

236. Choose virus that is not causative agent of viral hepatitis:

237. What is the reservoir of hepatitis A virus? ### ###

238. Choose methods that are used for hepatitis A diagnostics:

239. What type of hepatitis virus belongs to the family of Hepadnaviruses, contains DNA, is transmitted parenterally, is not cultivated in cell culture, is oncogenic? ### (letter)

240. HBs antigen of hepatitis B virus is ### located antigen

241. НBе Ag of hepatitis B virus is a fragment of ### antigen.

242. Choose characteristics of hepatitis B virus:

243. Select characteristics of immunity in case of hepatitis B:

244. Hepatitis D virus superinfection occurs in the presence of hepatitis ### virus (letter)

245. The rabies virus belongs to ### genus in the ### family.

246. The negative-sense single-stranded no fragmented RNA, nucleocapsid with spiral symmetry, outer-shell, capsid proteins and matrix proteins, RNA-polymerase, glycoprotein and a bullet shape are characteristics of ### virus.

247. What is not the reservoir of Rabies virus in nature:

248. Rabies virus can be transmitted throught ### and ### of animal.

249. Rabies incubation period when the virus penetrates through head and face skin is:

250. Special cylinders virus promotion from sensitive peripheral nerves endings to perineural spaces and brain and spinal cord neurons and virus reproduction in neurons with formation of Babesh-Negrie cytoplasmic inclusions play significant role in pathogenesis of ### infection.

251. “Fixed” rabies virus invented by Pasteur for vaccination does not differ from rabies virus in:

252. Choose indications for anti-rabies immunoglobulin treatment:

253. HIV genome includes two single-strand ### molecules. (abbreviation)

254. HIV virion supercapsid membrane contains glycoproteins gp with molecular masses of ### and ###.

255. Gp 120 of HIV virion attaches to the host cell membrane in the presence of ### receptor on it.

256. HIV penetration into the cell cannot be achieved by:

257. HIV infection specifically affects ### system of the organism.

258. What is impossible route of HIV transmission? ###

259. Choose cells that are not HIV target-cells:

260. Choose biomaterials that contains insufficient amount of HIV:

261. The goal of HIV infection therapy is:

262. Name the form of a virus that exists outside the host cell:

263. Phased papular rash is the characteristic of ### virus infection.

264. Measles mild form that vaccinated people may have is called ### measles.

265. ### type of virus-eukaryotic cell interaction can be characterized by viral DNA integration into the cell chromosome.

266. What is the major marker of human HBV infection?

267. What causative agents of infectious diseases do not have cellular structure?

268. What viruses contain virions with the enzyme “reverse transcriptase”?

269. HIV attach to the ### subpopulations of T-lymphocytes.

270. Choose the reason of liver cells cytolysis in case of viral hepatitis B:

271. Chronization of pathological process causing cirrhosis is mostly characteristic of viral hepatitis ###.

272. Choose characteristic of influenza pathogens antigenic drift:

273. The productive interaction of the simple virus with the host cell results in ### of the cell.

274. Influenza viruses are mostly cultivated on ### ###.

275. What reaction is used to determine of influenza virus in infected chicken embryos? ###

276. Damage of medulla oblongata of the motor neurons and the front horns of spinal cord is typical for pathogenesis of ###.

277. Poliomyelitis vaccine injection provides prevention of ### clinical form of infection.

278. What type of nucleiс acid is typical for hepatitis B virus? ### (abbreviation)

279. Hepatitis C virus belongs to ### family.

280. What type of nucleiс acid presents in hepatitis C virus? ### (abbreviation)

281. Hepatitis C virus can hide from immune system due to its high ###.

282. Multiyear latent progress is characteristic of hepatitis ### virus.

283. What type of hepatitis virus requires assistance of helper-virus? ###

284. What is the reservoir of parental virus hepatitis? ###

285. Gp120 and gp41 are antigens of ### (abbreviation) virus.

286. What HIV receptor provides interaction with target-cells?

287. Indication of HIV infection is required ### determination in patient’s blood.

288. What type of nucleiс acid presents in influenza virus? ### (abbreviation)

290. Hepatitis B virus testing of donated blood is carrying out through ### (abbreviation) antigen determination.

291. What is the major mechanism of hepatitis A virus transmission? ###-###

292. Bacteriophages wich lyse only definite bacteria within the species are called ### bacteriophages

293. Choose enzymes of HIV pol-complex:

294. Choose the measles symptoms:

295. What is not typical for hepatitis D virus:

296. Choose the virus that can be isolated from the feces 3 weeks after infection:

297. What enzyme presents in the core of the influenza virus?

298. Hydrophobia and aerophobia, hallucinations, alternation of excitement and depression are the features of ### disease.

299. What virus causes swelling of parotid salivary glands?

300. Mitochondria are missing in

301. A culture isolate from a patient with subacute endocarditis is reported to be gram positive and possess a complex carbohydrate cell wall. What is the most likely taxonomic group of the causal agent?

302. A 4-year-old boy develops several honey-crusted lesions behind his ears and on his face. The simplest test for the physician to determine the genus of bacteria responsible for this child’s illness is the

303. Sixteen residents in a retirement home have fever, malaise, and anorexia. These residents have taken their meals prepared by the same kitchen. Blood cultures from 11 of these residents grow Salmonella enterica subsp. Typhi. The primary reservoir of this organism is

304. What is the structure that is found in gram-negative but not in gram-positive bacteria?

305. The clinical laboratory reports the presence of 0157:H7 strains of E. coli in the bloody stools of 6 children ages 3–5 who attended a local petting zoo. These young children would be at an increased risk for developing

306. A 65-year-old man develops pneumonia. The organisms isolated from the sputum are gram-positive cocci that are alpha hemolytic on blood agar and sensitive to optochin. Which structure of the causal agent provides protection against phagocytosis?

307. A 68-year-old woman on chemotherapy for leukemia has developed sepsis due to an infection with Escherichia coli. The following day the patient develops septic shock and dies. The structure on the bacterium most likely responsible for causing septic shock in this patient is

308. What is the typical means of transmission of a toxin that blocks the release of inhibitory transmitters GABA and glycine?

309. A 10-year-old girl with an incomplete vaccination history presents to her pediatrician with a fever of 101.5°F (38oC), sore throat, malaise, and difficulty breathing. Physical examination reveals cervical lymphadenopathy and a gray, leathery exudate in the rear of the oropharynx. The area bleeds profusely when disturbed with a tongue depressor. Which of the following correctly describes the causal agent?

310. A 38-year-old man who recently visited India on business presents to the emergency department with profuse watery diarrhea flecked with mucus, and severe dehydration. Which of the following correctly describes the causal agent?

311. Two days after eating a meal that included home-canned green beans, 3 people developed various degrees of visual problems, including double vision and difficulties focusing. Describe the Gram reaction of the organism most likely to be isolated from the leftover beans and lab findings which would be used in its identification.

312. A 7-day-old infant presents to the emergency department with a fever, poorfeeding, and a bulging fontanelle. During her physical examination, she begins to convulse. A Gram stain of the CSF reveals gram-negative diplococci. Which of the following organisms is the most likely causal agent?

313. A 40-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with fever and night sweats, coughing up blood. Acid-fast bacilli are identified in his sputum. Which of the following virulence factors allows the causal agent to inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion to survive intracellularly?

314. A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intense pain in her lower back and a burning sensation upon urination. A urine culture was taken and plated on MacConkey agar. Gram-negative rods that did not ferment lactose were identified. Which virulence factor of the causal agent is most important to pathogenesis?

315. A 15-year-old girl develops a sore throat, fever, and earache of approximately 1 week duration. Upon examination by her physician, an erythematous rash is noted covering most of her body and her tongue appears bright red. Which of the following is the description of the causal agent?

316. How is a prophage created?

317. The ability of a cell to bind DNA to its surface and import it is required for which genetic process?

318. The process by which bacterial or plasmid DNA may be mistakenly incorporated (during assembly) into one phage being produced by the lytic life cycle and then that DNA-transferred to another bacterial cell which may acquire some new genetic traits is called

319. Lysogenic conversion

320. Which of the following events is most likely due to bacterial transformation?

321. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to be involved in multiple drug resistance transfer from one cell to another?

322. Which of the following agents, if introduced into a growing culture of bacteria, would halt growth but, if then removed, would allow growth to resume?

323. A 54-year-old man develops a pyogenic infection along the suture line after knee surgery. The laboratory gives a preliminary report of a hemolytic, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive, Grampositive coccus. The most likely causative agent is

324. The reagent used to distinguish staphylococci from streptococci is

325. Negri bodies are associated with

326. Lymphotropic and macrophage trophic designation is important in the pathogenesis of

327. Dane particles are associated with

328. The exchange of homologous segments of RNA between two different influenza type A viruses is called

329. Viruses whose genomes have a messenger (positive-sense) polarity are

330. A commercial vaccine consisting of virion subunits prepared by recombinant technology exists for