Биология на английском Лечебное дело Педиатрия
1) We distinguish the following kingdoms in the living world:
a) cellular and precellular life forms;
b) prokaryotes and eukaryotes;
c) animals, fungi, plants;
d) bacteria and protista.
2) Point out the main domains of the living world:
a) archaebacteria and eubacteria;
b) prokaryotes and eukaryotes;
c) animalia, fungi, plantae;
d) cellular and precellular life forms.
3) Prokaryotes and eukaryotes are:
a) Kingdoms;
b) Domains;
c) Phylum;
d) Classes.
a) Plantae;
b) Animalia;
c) Fungi;
d) Eubacteria.
5) The Eukaryote domain are composed of the following Kingdoms:
a) archaebacteria and eubacteria;
b) prokaryotes and eukaryotes;
c) animals, fungi, plantae, protists;
d) vertebrates and invertebrates.
6) Taxonomic ranks in zoology, starting with the smallest one:
a) species-genus-family-order-class-phylum-Kingdom;
b) Kingdom-phylum-class-order-family-genus-species;
c) species-family-order-genus-phylum-class-Kingdom;
d) species-family-genus-class-phylum-order- Kingdom.
7) Taxonomic ranks in botany, starting with the smallest one:
a) species-genus-family-class-division-order-Kingdom;
b) Kingdom-order-class-family-division-genus-species;
c) species-family-class-Kingdom-genus-order-division;
d) species-genus-family-order-class-division-Kingdom.
8) General biology studies:
a) the structure of the human body in connection with its function and influence of the environment;
b) functions of the organism as a whole, individual organs and systems;
c) the basic laws of life phenomena occurring at different levels of organization of life;
d) structure, chemical composition and functions of cells, their reproduction, development and interaction in a multicellular organism.
9) Organisms undergo a number of quantitative and qualitative changes, which are called:
a) autoregulation;
b) reproduction;
c) growth and development;
d) metabolism.
10) The process of reproduction organisms their like is called:
a) reproduction;
b) growth;
c) autoregulation;
d) development.
11)Levels of biological organization of life are:
a) molecular genetic, subcellular and cellular;
b) tissular and organismic;
c) population-species and biospheric-biogeocenotic;
d) molecular genetic, subcellular and cellular; tissular and organismic; population-species and biospheric-biogeocenotic;
a) molecular genetic;
b) subcellular;
c) cellular;
d) tissular.
13) The highest level is:
a) molecular genetic;
b) organismic;
c) population-species;
d) biospheric-biogeocenotic.
14) Biochemical and genetic processes of living systems are studied at:
a) molecular genetic level;
b) subcellular level;
c) cellular level;
d) tissular level.
15) The structure and function of cell components are studied at:
a) molecular genetic level;
b) subcellular level;
c) cellular level;
d) tissular level.
16) The structure and cell activity, its specialization in the development are studied at:
a) molecular genetic level;
b) subcellular level;
c) cellular level;
d) tissular level.
17) The structure and function of tissues and organs formed by them are studied at:
a) molecular genetic level;
b) subcellular level;
c) cellular level;
d) tissular level.
18) Structural features and functions of individuals are studied at:
a) molecular genetic level;
b) subcellular level;
c) cellular level;
d) tissular level.
19) Interrelations between populations that are part of biogeocenosis, are studied at:
a) tissular level;
b) organismic level;
c) population-species level;
d) biospheric-biogeocenotic level.
20) The circulation of substances and energy, due to life activity of organisms, are studied at:
a) tissular level;
b) organismic level;
c) population-species level;
d) biospheric-biogeocenotic level.
21) Elementary units of molecular genetic level are:
a) organelles;
b) macromolecules;
c) individuals;
d) species.
22) Elementary units of cellular level are:
a) organelles;
b) macromolecules;
c) individuals;
d) species.
23) Elementary units of organismic level are:
a) organelles;
b) macromolecules;
c) individuals;
d) species.
24) Intraspecies relations occur at :
a) tissular level;
b) organismic level;
c) population-species level;
d) biogeocenotic level.
25) Name the level of biological systems where laws of interspecies relations are operated:
a) tissular;
b) organismic;
c) population-species level;
d) biogeocenotic level.
26) Cell as a structural and functional body unit is studied by:
a) Cytology;
b) Histology;
c) Embryology;
d) Developmental biology.
27) General regularities of individual development of organisms are studied by:
a) Histology;
b) Embryology;
c) Biochemistry;
d) Biophysics.
28) Chemical composition of cells, structure, functions, and transformation of chemicals in the cell are studied by:
a) histology;
b) embryology;
c) biochemistry;
d) Biophysics.
28) Physico-chemical processes in cells and organisms are studied by:
a) Histology;
b) Embryology;
c) Biochemistry;
d) Biophysics.
30) Structure and properties of tissues are studied by:
a) Cytology;
b) Histology;
c) Embryology;
d) Developmental biology.
31) A branch of biology that studies the regularities of heredity and qualitative variability is:
a) Genetics;
b) Evolutionism;
c) Biocenology;
d) Ecology.
32) Historical development of wildlife and diversity of the organic world are studied by:
a) genetics;
b) the doctrine of evolution;
c) biocenology;
d) ecology.
33) Biological research method, which allows to describe biological phenomena is:
a) observation;
b) experiment;
c) comparison;
d) modeling.
34) What research method in biology makes it possible to find common patterns in the structure and life activity of different organisms:
a) observation;
b) experiment;
c) comparison;
d) modeling.
35) What research method in biology helps to study the properties of biological objects under controlled conditions?
a) observation;
b) the experiment;
c) comparison;
d) modeling.
36) What research method in biology simulates many processes that are inaccessible to direct observation?
a) observation;
b) the experiment;
in) comparison;
d) modeling.
37) The smallest structural unit of an organism endowed with all the basic features of all living organisms is:
a) cell;
b) tissue;
c) organ;
d) organ system.
38) Functioning unit of living organisms - is:
a) cell;
b) tissue;
c) organ;
d) organ system.
39) The tenets (the main statements) of the modern cell theory were formulated by:
a) R. Brown, R. Virchow, J. Purkinje;
b) M. Schleiden, R. Browne, T. Schwann;
c) T. Schwann, Virchow R., M. Schleiden;
d) Schwann, P. Browne, J. Purkinje.
40) The tenets (the main statements) of the modern cell theory were formulated in:
a) 1800 ;
b) 1839 ;
c) 1861 ;
d) 1900 .
41) The main statement(s) of the modern cell theory is (are) following:
a) cell is the basic structural-functional and genetical unit of all known living things;
b) cells of all organisms are similar in structure, chemical composition and processes of life activity;
c) new cells may be formed from a noncellular substance;
d) cell is the basic structural-functional and genetical unit of all known living things; living cells of all organisms are similar in structure, chemical composition and processes of life activity.
42) The study of the structure, chemical composition and function of the cells, their reproduction, development and interaction in a multicellular organism - is:
a) cytology;
b) embryology;
c) histology;
d) ecology.
43) The main research method in cytology is the following:
a) microscopic;
b) histological;
c) X-ray crystallographic analysis;
d) autoradiography (tracer analysis).
44) The chemical composition and biochemical reactions are studied by cytology with the help of the following methods :
a) electron microscopy;
b) biochemical;
c) X-ray crystallographic analysis;
d) autoradiography (tracer analysis).
45) The electron microscope was created in:
a) 1921 .;
b) 1931 .;
c) 1947 .;
d) 1961 ..
46) Denote the number of elements in the periodic system of D.I. Mendeleev found in the cells of different living organisms?
a) 24;
b) 50;
c) 70;
d) 100.
47) The most important chemical elements of cells are:
a) basic, macroelements;
b) basic, microelements;
c) macroelements, microelements;
d) basic, macroelements, microelements.
48) Macroelements are the chemical elements, which account for ….% of the cell mass:
a) not more than 2%;
b) 0.01%;
c) more than 95%;
d) 10%.
a) C, H, O, N;
b) Ca, P, S, K, Cl, Na, Mg;
a) Fe, I, Cu, Mn, Zn, Al, Mo;
d) C, H, O, N; Ca, P, S, K, Cl, Na, Mg.
50) Microelements are the chemical elements, which account for ….% of the cell mass:
a) not more than 1%;
b) 0.01%;
c) more than 95%;
d) 10%.
51) Microelements include:
a) C, H, O, N;
b) Ca, P, S, K, Cl, Na, Mg;
c) Fe, I, Cu, Mn, Zn, Al, Mo;
d) C, H, O, N; Ca, P, S, K, Cl, Na, Mg.
52) The basic elements are the chemical elements, which account for …..% of the cell mass:
a) not more than 1%;
b) 0.01%;
c) more than 95%;
d) 10%.
53) The basic elements of the cell are:
a) C, H, O, N;
b) Ca, P, S, K, Cl, Na, Mg;
a) Fe, I, Cu, Mn, Zn, Al, Mo;
d) C, H, O, N; Ca, P, S, K, Cl, Na, Mg.
54) Thyroxine includes the following microelement:
a) iodine;
b) cobalt;
c) copper;
d) zinc.
55) Choose the chemical elements which have an impact on the growth and development of organisms:
a) iodine, cobalt;
b) copper, molybdenum;
c) zinc, manganese;
d) iron, copper.
56) Name the chemical elements which influence the process of blood formation:
a) iodine, cobalt;
b) copper, molybdenum;
c) zinc, manganese;
d) iron, copper.
57) Bone tissue and tooth enamel are part of such macroelements as?
a) calcium, phosphorus;
b) sulfur, potassium;
c) chlorine, sodium;
d) calcium, potassium.
58) What macroelement is involved in blood clotting?
a) calcium;
b) phosphorus;
c) sulfur;
d) potassium.
59) Name the macroelement which provides the contractility of muscle fibers?
a) calcium;
b) phosphorus;
c) sulfur;
d) potassium.
60) Name the macroelement which is involved in the process of cardiac rhythm regulation?
a) calcium;
b) phosphorus;
c) sulfur;
d) potassium.
61) Hemoglobin and myoglobin are part of such a microelement as:
a) manganese;
b) iron;
c) copper;
d) molybdenum.
62) Choose the correct microelement which is part of the vitamin B12 and participates in the process of erythrocyte formation?
a) molybdenum;
b) cobalt;
c) zinc;
d) boron.
63) Choose the chemical substance which comes first among other cell chemical substances in terms of quantity:
a) proteins;
b) mineral substances;
c) water;
d) carbohydrates.
65) Cell water content is:
a) 10-20%
b) 20-50%
c) 50-70%
d) 20-90%
66) The role of water in the cell is determined by its properties as follows:
a) small sized molecules;
b) molecular polarity;
c) the ability of the molecules to be joined together by hydrogen bonds;
d) small sized molecules, molecular polarity, the molecules the ability to be joined together by hydrogen bonds.
67) Water is capable of dissolving the substances because:
a) its molecules are polar;
b) atoms in its molecule are joined by ionic bonds;
c) hydrogen bonds are formed between its molecules;
d) atoms in its molecule are joined by ionic bonds; hydrogen bonds are formed between its molecules.
68) The biological role of water in the cell:
a) it binds oxygen and carbon dioxide;
b) it is a universal solvent;
c) it is a universal source of energy;
d) it binds oxygen and carbon dioxide and it is the universal solvent.
69) Water is the universal solvent of:
a) polar substances;
b) non-polar substances;
c) substances with polar and non-polar groups;
d) polar substances, non-polar substances, substances with polar and non-polar groups.
70) Water-soluble substances are called:
a) hydrophylic;
b) hydrophobic;
c) amphiphilic;
d) amphoteric.
71) Water-insoluble substances are called:
a) hydrophilic;
b) hydrophobic;
c) amphiphilic;
d) amphoteric.
72) The properties of water are:
a) high thermal conductivity and high heat capacity;
b) high heat of vaporization;
c) high surface tension;
d) high thermal conductivity and high heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, high surface tension.
73) What property of water maintains the heat balance of the body when there are significant temperature changes in the environment?
a) high specific heat capacity;
b) high thermal conductivity;
c) high heat of vaporization;
d) high surface tension.
74) What water property allows the body to maintain the same temperature throughout the volume:
a) high specific heat capacity;
b) high thermal conductivity;
c) high heat of vaporization;
d) high surface tension.
75) What property of water cools the body, preventing it from being overheated:
a) high specific heat capacity;
b) high thermal conductivity;
c) high heat of vaporization;
d) high surface tension.
76) Biological functions of water are:
a) transporting;
b) metabolic;
c) structural;
d) transporting, metabolic, structural.
77) The transporting function of the water:
a) water is the basic substance for photosynthesis and a source of free oxygen.
b) water provides the material uptake and metabolic product excretion;
c) water is the basis of the cytoplasm, is a hydrostatical skeleton and causes cell turgor;
d) water is a basic substance for photosynthesis and a source of free oxygen, provides the material uptake and metabolic product excretion, it is the basis of the cytoplasm, is a hydrostatical skeleton and causes cell turgor.
78) The metabolic function of the water :
a) water is a basic substance for photosynthesis and a source of free oxygen.
b) water provides the material uptake and metabolic product excretion;
c) water is the basis of the cytoplasm, is a hydrostatical skeleton and causes cell turgor;
d) water is a basic substance for photosynthesis and a source of free oxygen, provides the material uptake and metabolic product excretion, it is the basis of the cytoplasm, is a hydrostatical skeleton and causes cell turgor.
79) The structural function of water is:
a) water is a basic substance for photosynthesis and a source of free oxygen.
b) water provides the material uptake and metabolic product excretion;
c) water is the basis of the cytoplasm, is a hydrostatical skeleton and causes cell turgor;
d) water is a basic substance for photosynthesis and a source of free oxygen, provides the material uptake and metabolic product excretion, it is the basis of the cytoplasm, is a hydrostatical skeleton and causes cell turgor.
80) Inorganic substances are;
a) proteins;
b) water;
c) mineral salts;
d) water, mineral salts.
81) Organic substances are:
a) proteins;
b) water;
c) mineral salts;
d) water, mineral salts.
82) Small biomolecules are:
a) amino acids;
b) glycerol;
c) monosaccharide;
d) amino acids, glycerol, monosaccharide.
83) High molecular weight (relative molecular mass 103 - 109) organic compounds where macromolecules consist of monomers are called:
a) biological polymers;
b) amino acids;
c) monosaccharides;
d) higher carboxylic acids.
a) polysaccharides;
b) proteins;
c) nucleic acid;
d) polysaccharides, proteins, nucleic acids.
85) Esters of higher carboxylic acids and a number of alcohols are:
a) proteins;
b) lipids;
c) carbohydrates;
d) nucleic acids.
86) The most energy-intensive elements are:
a) fats;
b) nucleic acids;
c) proteins;
d) fats, proteins.
87) Phospholipids are the complex of:
a) carbohydrates and lipids;
b) metals and lipids;
c) proteins and lipids;
d) phosphoric acid residues and lipids.
88) The most important lipids are:
a) fats, phospholipids;
b) waxes, steroids;
a) glycogen, glycosides;
d) fats, phospholipids, waxes, steroids, glycogen, glycosides.
89) Functions of lipids in the cell are following:
a) structural and energy;
b) protective and heat-insulating;
c) lubricating and water-repellent;
d) structural and energy, heat-insulating, lubricating and water-repellent.
90) The structural function is:
a) lipids form biological membranes;
b) lipids protect the internal organs from mechanical damages;
c) lipids make the skin more elastic and protect from moisture;
d) lipids are part of hormones.
91) Protective and heat-insulating lipids function are:
a) lipids form biological membranes;
b) lipids protect the internal organs from mechanical damages;
c) lipids make the skin more elastic and protect from moisture;
d) lipids are part of hormones.
92) The substances of the general formula Cn (H2O) m, where n and m can have different meanings, are:
a) proteins;
b) lipids;
c) carbohydrates;
d) fat.
93) Monosaccharides include:
a) starch;
b) glucose;
c) cellulose;
d) starch, glucose, cellulose.
94) Monosaccharides exist in the following forms:
a) lineal and spiral;
b) lineal and circular;
c) circular and spiral ;
d) cycling and spiral.
a) glucose;
b) lactic acids;
c) fructose;
d) deoxyribose.
a) glucose;
b) lactic acids;
c) fructose;
d) deoxyribose.
97) Molecules, containing from 2 to 10 monosaccharide residues joined to each other by glycosidic linkages, are molecules of:
a) oligosaccharides;
b) polysaccharides;
c) chitin;
d) starch.
a) lactose;
b) sucrose;
c) glucose;
d) lactose, sucrose.
a) are not soluble in water and don’t have a sweet taste;
b) are soluble in water and have a sweet taste;
c) are not soluble in water and have a sweet taste;
d) are very soluble in water and don’t have sweet taste
100) Polysaccharides are:
a) starch;
b) glucose;
c) cellulose;
d) starch, cellulose.
a) are not soluble in water and don’t have a sweet taste;
b) are soluble in water and have a sweet taste;
c) are not soluble in water and have a sweet taste;
d) are very soluble in water and don’t have sweet taste
a) a monosaccharide;
b) reserve nutrient of plant cells;
c) reserve food material of living cells;
d) disaccharide.
a) reserve nutrient of plant cells;
b) a monosaccharide;
c) reserve food material of living cells;
d) disaccharide.
a) reserve nutrient of plant cells;
b) reserve food material of living cells;
c) a polysaccharide;
d) disaccharide.
105) Organism stores substances in the form of polysaccharides because they are:
a) not soluble in water;
b) soluble in water;
c) have a sweet taste;
d) does not have a sweet taste.
106) Glycoprotein is a complex of:
a) metals and carbohydrates;
b) carbohydrates and proteins;
c) phosphoric acid residues and lipids;
d) carbohydrates and lipids.
107) Glycolipids is a complex of:
a) proteins and lipids;
b) metals and lipids;
c) carbohydrates and lipids;
d) carbohydrates and proteins.
108) The functions of carbohydrates in the cells are:
a) structural and energy;
b) transporting and structural;
c) protective and catalytic;
d) transporting and protective.
109) Biological heteropolymers whose monomers are amino acids, are:
a) proteins:
b) lipids;
c) carbohydrates;
d) fat.
110) Protein monomers are:
a) nucleotides;
b) monosaccharides;
c) glycerol;
d) amino acids.
111) Choose the correct number of amino acids in proteins?
a) 20;
b) 30;
c) 200;
d) 15.
112) The properties of proteins are:
a) the species specificity;
b) the ability to denature and renature;
c) the ability to bind oxygen;
d) species specificity; ability to denature and renature.
a) a restoring process of the protein natural structure;
b) a violation process of the protein natural structure;
c) oxidation process of the protein natural;
d) restoring and violation processes of the protein natural structure.
114) The structural function of proteins is to:
a) be part of the cell membranes;
b) to catalyze chemical reactions in the cells;
c) to serve as a source of energy;
d) capable of transporting a variety of substances (materials).
115) The enzymatic function of proteins is to:
a) be part of the cell membranes;
b) to catalyze chemical reactions in the cells;
c) to serve as a source of energy;
d) to transport a variety of substances.
116) Enzymes is a biocatalysts, consisting of:
a) a lipid part;
b) the protein part;
d) a substrate;
d) lipid part and substrate.
117) The enzyme is characterized by a high degree of specificity, i.e :
a) catalyzes only one reaction;
b) catalyzes only several reactions;
c) affect only one communication type;
d) catalyzes only one reaction and affect only one communication type.
118) Nucleic acids monomers are:
a) the nitrogenous bases;
b) ribose or deoxyribose;
c) nucleotides;
d) nitrogenous bases; ribose or deoxyribose.
119) Nucleotide consists of a:
a) glycerol and higher carboxylic acids;
b) the nitrogenous bases;
c) sugar, a phosphoric acid residue, and nitrogenous bases;
d) sugar and a phosphate group.
120) DNA and RNA differ from each other by the content of:
a) sugar;
b) the nitrogenous bases;
c) sugar, and nitrogenous bases;
d) a phosphate group.
121) DNA occurs in the cell:
a) in the nucleus and cytoplasm;
b) only in the nucleus;
c) in the nucleus and mitochondria;
d) only in the cytoplasm.
122) RNA is a part of the:
a) ribosomes and cytoplasm;
b) plastids and mitochondria;
c) the nucleus and Golgi complex;
d) ribosomes and cytoplasm; plastids and mitochondria.
123) The DNA molecule comprises:
a) a polynucleotide chain spirally twisted;
b) two polynucleotide chains spirally twisted relative to one another;
c) three polynucleotide chains spirally twisted relative to one another;
d) a polynucleotide chain.
124) The structure of DNA is maintained by hydrogen bonds between:
a) adjacent nucleotides;
b) complementary nitrogenous bases in two chains;
c) phosphoric acid residues in the backbone chain;
d) neighboring nucleotides; Phosphoric acid residues in the backbone chains.
125) DNA nucleotide comprises:
a) ribose, a phosphoric acid residue, thymine;
b) deoxyribose, a phosphoric acid residue, uracil;
c) a phosphoric acid residue, deoxyribose, thymine;
d) uracil, ribose, phosphoric acid residue.
126) DNA structure consists of nitrogenous bases:
a) adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine;
b) guanine, uracil, cytosine, thymine;
c) cytosine, adenine, thymine, uracil;
d) thymine, guanine, adenine, uracil.
127) There is such a constant communication of DNA elements:
a) A + G / T + C
b) A + T / G + C
c) T / C
d) U / A
a) storage of genetic information, participation in energy metabolism;
b) transport of amino acids to the ribosome, storage of genetic information;
c) accumulation of protein molecules, storage of genetic information;
d) genetic information transfer by iRNA molecules, genetic information storage.
129) RNA molecules consist of:
a) a polynucleotide chain spirally twisted;
b) two polynucleotide chains, spirally twisted;
c) three polynucleotide chains, spiral wound;
d) one polynucleotide chain.
130) RNA nucleotide consists of:
a) thymine, phosphoric acid residue, deoxyribose;
b) a deoxyribose, a phosphoric acid residue, uracil;
c) adenine, deoxyribose, a phosphoric acid residue;
d) ribose,a phosphoric acid residue, uracil.
131) The structure of RNA includes nitrogenous bases:
a) adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil;
b) guanine, adenine, cytosine, thymine;
c) cytosine, guanine, thymine, uracil;
d) thymine, adenine, cytosine, uracil.
132) Uracil as the nitrogenous base is complementary to:
a) guanine;
b) adenine;
c) uracil;
c) thymine.
133) Adenine as nitrogenous base is complementary:
a) adenine;
b) guanine;
c) cytosine;
d) thymine.
134) Guanine as nitrogenous base is complementary to:
a) adenine;
b) guanine;
c) cytosine;
d) thymine.
135) Cytosine as a nitrogenous base is complementary to:
a) adenine;
b) guanine;
c) cytosine;
d) thymine.
136) Thymine as a nitrogenous base is complementary to:
a) adenine;
b) guanine;
c) cytosine;
d) thymine.
137) iRNA (informational riziform) function is:
a) genetic information transfer to the daughter molecules iRNA;
b) amino acids delivery to the ribosome;
c) genetic information transfer to rRNA (ribosomal riziform);
d) genetic information transfer from DNA into the ribosome.
138) The function of tRNA (transfer riziform):
a) amino acids delivery to the ribosome;
b) genetic information transfer to iRNA daughter molecules;
c) genetic information transfer from DNA to the ribosome;
d) genetic information transfer of rRNA.
a) amino acids delivery to the ribosome;
b) genetic information transfer from DNA to the ribosome;
c) genetic information transfer to daughter iRNA molecules;
d) providing spatial relationship of iRNA and tRNA.
140) ATP (adenosine triphosphate) molecule consists of:
a) adenine, ribose, three phosphoric acid residues;
b) guanine, sucrose, two residues of phosphoric acid;
c) adenine, three residues of phosphoric acid;
d) guanine, sucrose, two residues of phosphoric acid; adenine, three residues of phosphoric acid.
141) Where ATP is synthesized in the cell:
a) vacuoles, mitochondria;
b) cytoplasm, lysosomes;
c) nucleus, ribosomes;
d) mitochondria, chloroplasts.
142) ATP bound energy is released when there is a connection break between such groups as:
a) phosphate;
b) carboxyl;
c) amino;
d) phosphate and carboxyl.
142) The final products of the reaction ATP + H2O >? +? +40 kJ are:
a) ATP;
b) AMP;
c) H3PO4;
d) ADP H3PO4.
143) The final products of the reaction ADP +Н2О>? +? +40 kJ are:
a) ATP;
b) AMP;
c) H3PO4;
d) AMP H3PO4.
144) The final products of the reaction ADP + H3PO4 + 40 kJ > ? +Н2О are:
a) ATP;
b) AMP;
c) H3PO4;
d) ADP H3PO4.
145) The main structural components of the cell are:
a) the cytoplasm, cell membrane, nucleus;
b) mitochondria, envelope, nucleus;
c) envelope, nucleus, Golgi complex;
d) nucleus, cytoplasm, mitochondria.
146) The basic cell material, containing all the organelles is:
a) the cytoplasm;
b) hyaloplasm;
c) protoplast;
d) plasma membrane.
147) The plasma membrane is formed of:
a) phospholipids and proteins;
b) proteins and nucleic acids;
b) carbohydrates and lipids;
d) protein and glycocalyx.
148) Name the properties of biological membranes:
a) fluidity;
b) dynamics;
c) selective permeability;
d) fluidity; dynamic; selective permeability.
149) Fluidity property of biological membranes means:
a) can change their configuration;
b) can be restored quickly after damage;
c) expand and contract during cell movements;
d) can be restored quickly after damage expand and contract during cell movements.
150) Dynamics property means:
a) biological membranes can change their configuration;
b) biological membranes can be restored quickly after damage;
c) biological membranes expand and contract during cell movements;
d) biological membranes can be restored quickly after damage expand and contract during cell movements.
151) Name the property of the plasma membrane which determines it as an osmotic barrier?
a) fluidity;
b) dynamics;
c) selective permeability;
d) flow; dynamic; selective permeability.
152) Name the methods how substances flux into the cell:
a) diffusion;
b) active transport;
c) osmosis, transplantation;
d) diffusion; active transport.
153) Substances movement into the cell without energy consumption is carried out by means of:
a) diffusion, osmosis;
b) phagocytosis;
c) active transport;
d) all answers are correct.
154) Substances movement into the cell where energy is required, is carried out by means of:
a) diffusion;
b) facilitated diffusion;
c) osmosis;
d) active transport.
155) Penetration of solute materials into the cell through the cytoplasmic membrane upon concentration gradient is called:
a) diffusion;
b) active transport;
c) exocytosis;
d) phagocytosis.
156) Facilitated diffusion – is a:
a) movement of substances through the membrane against a concentration gradient;
b) capture of liquid materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm;
c) combination of carrier protein with molecule for its membrane;
d) capture of particulate materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm.
157) Active transport - is:
a) substances movement into the cell upon concentration gradient without energy consumption;
b) selective transport of substances into the cell against concentration gradient with the expenditure of energy;
c) capture of particulate materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm;
d) capture of liquid materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm.
158) Passive transport - is:
a) selective transport of substances into the cell against concentration gradient with the expenditure of energy;
b) capture of particulate materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm;
c) capture of liquid materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm.
d) substances movement into the cell upon concentration gradient without energy consumption.
a) capture of particulate materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm;
b) substances movement into the cell against concentration gradient without energy consumption;
c) capture of liquid materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm;
d) selective transport of amino acids into the cell.
a) capture of liquid materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm;
b) entry into the cell of substances against a concentration gradient;
c) selective transport of amino acids into the cell;
d) capture of particulate materials by cell membrane and their penetration into the cell cytoplasm.
161) Water flows through the membrane into the cells by means of;
a) osmosis;
b) phagocytosis;
c) active transport;
d) osmosis and active transport.
162) Potassium ions flow through the membrane into the cell by means of:
a) diffusion;
b) osmosis;
c) active transport;
d) diffusion and active transport.
163) Transport of ions through the cell membrane, carried out with the expenditure of energy - is:
a) diffusion;
b) facilitated diffusion;
c) osmosis;
d) active transport.
164) Transport of substances through the cytoplasmic cell membrane with the expenditure of energy is carried out by means of:
a) diffusion;
b) K-Na-pump;
c) osmosis;
d) phagocytosis.
165) Receptor function of the biological membrane is that it:
a) is involved in the energy transduction;
b) provides perimembrane chemical processes;
c) is involved in receiving and converting the signals from the environment;
d) provides transport of substances into the cell.
166) The catalyst function of biological membranes is that it:
a) is involved in the energy transduction;
b) provides perimembrane chemical processes;
c) is involved in receiving and converting the signals from the environment;
d) provides transport of substances into the cell.
167) he main components of the cytoplasm:
a) hyaloplasm, nucleus;
b) hyaloplasm, organelles;
c) nucleus, organelles;
d) inclusions, nucleus.
a) reserve food materials;
b) permanent structural components of cells;
c) non-permanent components of cells;
d) permanent structural components of cells and reserve food materials.
169) Organelles of general purpose type are:
a) mitochondria, Golgi apparatus;
b) endoplasmic reticulum, pulsating vacuoles;
c) myofibrils, mitochondria;
d) pulsating vacuoles, ribosomes.
170) Membrane organelles include:
a) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes;
b) a ribosome plastid;
c) lysosomes, mitochondria;
d) Golgi apparatus, ribosomes; lysosomes, mitochondria.
171) Non-membrane organelles include:
a) mitochondria;
b) plastid;
c) lysosomes;
d) ribosome.
172) Trophic cell inclusions are:
a) oxalate;
b) hormones;
c) enzymes;
d) nutrient storage.
173) Secretory cell inclusions are:
a) enzymes, hormones;
b) hormones starch;
c) entry of nutrients, hormones;
d) oxalate, enzymes.
174) The function of the endoplasmic reticulum is a synthesis of:
a) protein, carbohydrates;
b) ATP;
c) carbohydrates, ATP;
d) ATP, fats.
175) The function of agranular endoplasmic reticulum is a synthesis of:
a) proteins;
b) carbohydrates;
b) lipids;
d) carbohydrates and lipids.
176) The function of granular endoplasmic reticulum - is:
a) synthesis of proteins;
b) synthesis of ATP;
c) the transport of substances;
d) protein synthesis, transport of substances.
177) The system of flat-topped disc-shaped storage tanks, bounded by membrane are:
a) endoplasmic reticulum;
b) the cytoskeleton;
c) mitochondria;
d) the Golgi apparatus.
178) Functions of the Golgi apparatus are:
a) synthesis of nucleic acids;
b) construction of compound organic complexes;
c) synthesis of hormones;
d) synthesis of ATP.
179) The function of lysosome is:
a) to synthesize carbohydrates;
b) to split the food elements;
c) to synthesize fats;
d) to synthesize ATP.
180) Name the cell component taking part in the process of lysosome formation:
a) ribosomes;
b) Golgi complex;
c) nucleus;
d) mitochondria.
181) Cell organelles consisting of two membranes which store energy in the form of ATP molecules are called:
a) mitochondria;
b) centrioles;
c) the ribosome;
d) polysomes.
182) The function of mitochondria is to synthesize:
a) carbohydrates;
b) nucleic acids;
c) fats;
d) ATP.
183) The function of ribosomes is to synthesize:
a) carbohydrates;
b) fats;
c) proteins;
d) nucleic acids.
184) Catabolism occurs mainly in:
a) the Golgi complex;
b) ribosomes;
c) the lysosomes;
d) endoplasmic reticulum.
185) Anabolism occurs mainly in:
a) lysosomes;
b) ribosomes;
c) the mitochondria;
d) lysosomes and ribosomes.
186) Hollow cylinders consisting of micro tubes and involved in cell division are called:
a) centrioles;
b) microfilaments;
c) chromosomes;
d) microfilaments, chromosome.
187) The cell structures, providing its movements, are called:
a) flagella and cilia;
b) desmosomes;
c) flagella, phagocytes;
d) desmosomes, flagella, phagocytes.
188) Name cell structures providing intracellular movement:
a) microtubules;
b) protofibrils and microfilaments;
c) the cilia and flagella;
d) intermediate filaments.
189) Name cell structures performing supporting function:
a) the Golgi complex;
b) protofibrils and microfilaments;
c) cilia and flagella;
d) intermediate filaments.
190) Name cell structures providing cell movement in general, or fluid flow and particles along the cell surface:
a) microtubules;
b) protofibrils and microfilaments;
c) the cilia and flagella;
d) intermediate filaments.
191) The structural components of the cell nucleus are:
a) shell and nucleoplasm;
b) chromatin and the nucleole;
c) chromosomes and mitochondria;
d) shell and nucleoplasm, chromatin and nucleolus.
192) The nucleole is involved in:
a) rRNA (ribosomal riziform) synthesis;
b) the nucleoplasm synthesis;
c) the self-assembly of ribosomal subunits;
d) rRNA (ribosomal riziform) synthesis; the self-assembly of ribosomal subunits.
193) Centrosome consists of:
a) nucleus and the nucleole;
b) channels and cisterns;
c) two centrioles;
d) thylakoids and gran.
a) are responsible for lipid synthesis;
b) synthesize proteins;
c) carry out photosynthesis;
d) a hereditary information carrier.
195) Somatic cell chromosome set which is typical for the given systematic group of organisms, is called:
a) phenotype;
b) karyotype;
c) nucleoplasm;
d) phenotype; karyotype.
196) Haploid chromosome set is indicated as:
a) 4n;
b) n;
c) 2n;
d) 8n.
197) Diploid chromosome set is indicated as:
a) 4n;
b) n;
a) 2n;
d) 8n.
198) Choose the correct number of sex chromosomes in human somatic cells:
a) 2;
b) 23;
c) 44;
d) 1.
199) Choose the correct number of sex chromosomes in gametes:
a) 2;
b) 22;
c) 44;
d) 1.
200) The structural components of the metaphase chromosomes are:
a) centromere;
b) chromosome arms;
c) centriole;
d) centromere and chromosome arms.
201) The function of the nucleus is :
a) to store genetic information;
b) to reproduce genetic information;
c) to control cell metabolic process;
d) to store and reproduce genetic information; to control cell metabolic process.
202) Unified system for recording genetic information in nucleic acid molecules in the nucleotide sequence is:
a) the genetic code;
b) chromosome set;
c) chromosome code;
d) genetic set.
203) Properties of the genetic code:
a) multiplicity, triplicity, disjointness, universality;
b) triplicity, complementarity, universality, disjointness;
c) complementarity, multiplicity disjointness, triplicity;
d) disjointness, universality, triplicity, complementarity.
204) Each amino acid is encoded by a combination of nucleotides consequently arranged, i.e. code is:
a) multiple;
b) non-overlapping;
c) triplet;
d) universal.
205) The same amino acid may be encoded by several triplets, i.e. code is:
a) multiple;
b) non-overlapping;
c) triplet;
d) universal.
206) The same nucleotide cannot be a part of the two adjacent triplets simultaneously, i.e. code is:
a) multiple;
b) non-overlapping;
c) triplet;
d) universal.
207) Each triplet encodes only one amino acid, i.e. code is:
a) multiple;
b) unambiguous;
c) non-overlapping;
d) universal.
208) The same triplets encode the same amino acid, i.e. code is:
a) multiple;
b) non-overlapping;
c) unambiguous;
d) universal.
209) Genetic code triplicity is:
a) replication;
b) transcription;
c) translation;
d) replication; transcription; translation.
210) Genetic code multiplicity is:
a) replication;
b) transcription;
c) translation;
d) replication; transcription; translation.
211) Genetic code disjointness is:
a) replication;
b) transcription;
c) translation;
d) replication; transcription; translation.
212) Structural unit responsible for protein molecule synthesis is:
a) DNA molecule;
b) gene;
c) triplet;
d) RNA molecule.
213) DNA molecule duplication is called:
a) transcription;
b) translation;
c) replication;
d) conjugation.
214) Protein biosynthesis stages are the followings:
a) preparation, DNA replication;
b) a DNA replication, translation;
c) transcription, translation;
d) oxygen, DNA replication.
215) Genetic information copying from DNA to iRNA(informational riziform) is called:
a) transcription;
b) translation;
c) replication;
d) conjugation.
216) The sequence of iRNA (informational riziform) nucleotides is complementary to the nucleotide sequence of:
a) one DNA strand;
b) two DNA strands;
c) t-RNA molecules;
d) rRNA(ribosomal riziform) molecules.
217) RNA and ribosomes complex is:
a) polysomes (polyribosome);
b) triplet;
c) gene;
d) polysomes (polyribosome); triplet.
218) The process of translating RNA nucleotide code sequence into the primary structure of protein is called:
a) transcription;
b) translation;
c) replication;
d) conjugation.
219) Template-directed synthesis reaction is:
a) fat synthesis, protein synthesis, iRNA (informational riziform) synthesis ;
b) carbohydrate synthesis, protein synthesis, and RNA synthesis;
c) DNA molecule replication, protein synthesis, iRNA synthesis;
d) iRNA (informational riziform) synthesis, protein synthesis, tRNA synthesis (transfer riziform).
220) An example of the template-directed synthesis reaction is:
a) replication;
b) transcription;
c) translation;
d) translation, transcription.
221) The oxygen stage effectiveness of energetic metabolism in comparison with anoxic one is:
a) 6 times higher;
b) 3 times less;
c) 18 times higher;
d) the same.
222) Cell cycle of continuously reproducing tissue cell of multi-cellular organism consists of the next stages:
a) postmitotic and synthetic;
b) premitotic and mitosis;
c) postmitotic and telophase;
d) postmitotic and synthetic, premitotic and mitosis.
223) Stages of interphase:
a) prophase, synthetic, postmitotic;
b) synthetic, premitotic, postmitotic;
c) premitotic, postmitotic, telophase;
d) postmitotic, metaphase, synthetic.
224) In interphase occurs :
a) chromatid spiralization;
b) chromatid separation to cellular pole;
c) DNA replication;
d) conjugation of chromosomes.
225) In postmitotic period of interphase occurs:
a) cell growth; RNA, proteins and enzymes synthesis;
b) synthesis of daughter chains on maternal DNA , rRNA, proteins;
c) synthesis iRNA(informational riziform), proteins, spindle apparatus microtube ;
d) cell growth, synthesis of RNA, proteins, enzymes, synthesis of daughter chains on maternal DNA.
226) In the synthetic period of interphase occurs:
a) cell growth; RNA, proteins and enzymes synthesis;
b) synthesis of daughter chains on maternal DNA , rRNA, proteins;
c) synthesis iRNA(informational riziform), proteins, spindle apparatus microtube ;
d) cell growth, synthesis of RNA, proteins, enzymes, synthesis of daughter chains on maternal DNA.
227) In prebiotically the period of interphase occurs:
a) cell growth; RNA, proteins and enzymes synthesis;
b) synthesis of daughter chains on maternal DNA , rRNA, proteins;
c) synthesis iRNA(informational riziform), proteins, spindle apparatus microtube ;
d) cell growth, synthesis of RNA, proteins, enzymes, synthesis of daughter chains on maternal DNA.
228) DNA molecules replication takes place in:
a) mitosis prophase;
b) interphase premitotic period;
c) interphase synthetic period;
d) interphase postmitotic period;
a) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase;
b) interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase;
c) metaphase, interphase, anaphase, telophase;
d) telophase, anaphase, prophase,interphase;
230)The folowing cells are formed at mitosis:
a) somatic cells
b) reproductive cells,
c) gametes;
d) Genital, Somatic.
231) Chromosomes thickening (spiralization), dissepearing of nucleolus, the nuclear envelope disintegration, the centriole separation into the poles and spindle apparatus formation take place in:
a) anaphase;
b) telophase;
c) prophase;
d) metaphase.
232) Centrioles separates to the cell poles, and the spindle apparatus are being formed at the following mitosis phase:
a) pro-phase;
b) anaphase;
c) telophase;
d) metaphase.
233) Chromatids assort and move to the cell poles at the following mitosis phase:
a) pro-phase;
b) anaphase;
c) telophase;
d) metaphase.
234) Chromosomes form the equatorial plate at the following mitosis phase:
a) pro-phase;
b) anaphase;
c) telophase;
d) metaphase.
235) Chromosome despiralization destroying spindle apparatus takes place in the following mitosis phase:
a) pro-phase;
b) anaphase;
c) telophase;
d) metaphase.
236) Cytoplasm division with formation of two cells takes place in the following mitosis phase:
a) pro-phase;
b) anaphase;
c) telophase;
d) metaphase.
237) Name one mitosis phase where nuclear membrane is formed of cytoplasm membrane structures around chromosomes of each pole?
a) pro-phase;
b) anaphase;
c) telofaphase;
d) metaphase.
238) How many daughter cells are formed at mitosis:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
239) Biological significance of mitosis consists in:
a) strictly identical distribution of genetic material between daughter cells;
b) cell increase;
c) strictly identical distribution of genetic between daughter cells material and cell increase;
d) unequal distribution of genetic material between daughter cells
240) The following cells are formed after miosis:
a) somatic;
b) gamete;
c) non-nuclear;
d) somatic, gamete.
241) The first meiotic division is called:
a) crossingover;
b) reducing;
c) mitotic;
d) conjugation.
242) The second meiotic division is called:
a) crossingover;
b) reducing;
c) mitotic;
d) conjugation.
243) In the prophase of meiosis I occurs:
a) chromosome spiralization, chromosome conjugation, crossingover;
b) chromosome separation to the poles, crossingover;
c) chromosome conjugation, chromatid separation to the poles, crossingover;
d) chromatid separation to the poles, crossing over, chromosome spiralization.
a) chromosome pairs;
b) gene pairs;
c) genes;
d) genes, gene pairs.
245) Bivalent are formed as a result of:
a) spiralization;
b) crossingover;
a) despiralization;
d) conjugation.
246) Biological significance of the crossingover is:
a) to ensure efficient chromosome recombination in the gametes;
b) chromatin compaction;
c) to ensure balanced distribution of chromatin between daughter cells;
d) to ensure balanced distribution of chromatin between daughter cells, chromatin compaction.
247) The spindle formation is completed at:
a) metaphase I;
b) prophase I;
c) telophase II;
d) anaphase I.
248) Homologous chromosomes are separated to the cell poles at the following meiosis phase:
a) metaphase I;
b) prophase I;
c) telophase II;
d) anaphase I.
249) Spindle fibers connected to the centromere homologous chromosomes form bivalents in the equatorial plane at the following meiosis phase:
a) metaphase I;
b) prophase I;
c) telophase II;
d) anaphase I.
250) Homologous chromosome disjunction ensures the formation of haploid gametes at the following meiosis phase:
a) metaphase I;
b) prophase I;
c) telophase II;
d) anaphase I.
251) In which phase of meiosis, the conditions for the subsequent chromosome number reduction are created at the following meiosis phase:
a) metaphase I;
b) prophase I;
c) telophase II;
d) anaphase I.
252) In the anaphase of meiosis II occurs:
a) chromosome;
b) chromosome conjugation;
c) chromatid disjunction;
d) crossingover.
253) Bivalents are formed at the following meiosis phase:
a) prophase I;
b) prophase II;
c) metaphase I;
d) telophase I.
254) Crossingover takes place at the following meiosis phase:
a) prophase I;
b) prophase II;
c) metaphase I;
d) telophase I.
255) Biological significance of meiosis is?
a) to preserve the maximum amount of deutoplasm (a yolk granule) needed for the future development of the embryo;
b) to maintain karyotype constance among all generations of a given species;
c) to restore diploid set of chromosomes in zygote;
d) to maintain karyotype constance among all generations of a given species and to restore diploid set of chromosomes in zygote;
256) The difference of meiosis from mitosis is:
a) formation of four daughter cells;
b) participation in meiosis II where cells contain a haploid set of chromosomes;
c) participation in meiosis II where cells contain a diploid set of chromosomes;
d) formation of four daughter cells and participation in meiosis II where cells contain a haploid set of chromosomes.
261) Write down the name of the period of the cell cycle preceding mitosis ####
...
262) Write down the name of the phase in mitosis, shown at the picture ####
...
263) Property of living organisms to reproduce their own kind is:
a) insemination;
b) reproduction;
c) regeneration;
d) determination.
264) The biological significance of reproduction is:
a) to increase the number of species;
b) to maintain of long-standing existence of the species;
c) to contribute to the resettlement of species;
d) to increase the number of species; to maintain of long-standing existence of the species; to contribute to the resettlement of species.
265) Asexual reproduction is characterized by:
a) involvment of one parent;
b) involvement of two parental animals;
c) daughter organism genotypes identical to the parental one;
d) involvment of one parent, daughter organism genotypes identical to the parental one.
266) The form of asexual reproduction is:
a) sporulation;
b) parthenogenesis;
c) hermaphroditism;
d) ontogenesis.
267) During asexual reproduction new body develops from:
a) one parent cell;
b) zygote;
c) unfertilized egg;
d) mesoderm.
268) The simplest form of asexual reproduction is:
a) blastogenesis;
b) fragmentation;
c) division;
d) sporogenesis.
269) The form of asexual reproduction by means of regeneration is:
a) blastogenesis;
b) fragmentation;
c) division;
d) sporogenesis.
270) The form of asexual reproduction in which a new individual is formed as an outgrowth on the body of the parent individuals - is:
a) budding;
b) fragmentation;
c) the division;
d) sporulation.
271) During asexual reproduction are formed;
a) genotypically similar species;
b) phenotypically similar species;
c) genotype dissimilar species;
d) genotypically and phenotypically similar species.
272) Vegetative propagation is a form of:
a) sexual reproduction;
b) asexual reproduction;
c) cloning;
d) sporogenesis.
273) The sexual reproduction is characterized by:
a) involvement of one parental animal;
b) involvement of two parental animals;
c) combinative variability;
d) involvement of two parental animals; combinative variability.
274) The distinguish feature of sexual reproduction is the formation of:
a) germinal cells by diclinous organisms;
b) male and female sex cells by hermaphroditic organisms;
c) germinal cells by diclinous organisms, male and female sex cells by hermaphroditic organisms;
d) somatic cell by diclinous organisms.
275) The sexual process - is:
a) fusion of sperm and egg;
b) the formation of germ cells;
c) the introduction of the virus into the cell;
d) the exchange of genetic information between individuals of the same species.
a) reproduction of gametes;
b) fusion of gametes;
c) the formation of gametes;
d) puberty.
277) female gametes called:
a) a zygote;
b) the egg;
c) the oocyte;
d) a zygote, egg.
278) of male gametes is called:
a) a zygote;
b) spermatocytes;
c) the oocyte;
d) sperm.
279) The process of formation of male germ cells is called:
a) insemination;
b) oogenesis;
c) spermatogenesis;
d) insemination, oogenesis, spermatogenesis.
280) The process of formation of female gametes called:
a) insemination;
b) oogenesis;
c) spermatogenesis;
d) insemination, oogenesis, spermatogenesis.
281) Spermatogenesis takes place in:
a) the testes;
b) the ovaries;
c) uterus;
d) testes, ovaries, uterus.
282) The periods of spermatogenesis - is:
a) the development, reproduction, growth, formation;
b) the reproduction, growth, maturation, formation;
c) the growth, maturation, the formation and development;
d) maturation, development, growth, formation of.
283) During the breeding season when gametogenesis cells divide:
a) mitosis;
b) meiosis;
c) amitosis;
d) schizogony.
284) During the period of maturation during gametogenesis cells divide:
a) mitosis;
b) meiosis;
c) amitosis;
d) schizogony.
285) zone located at the periphery of the seed tubule zone:
a) growth;
b) reproduction;
c) maturing;
d) formation.
286) The primary male sex cells are called:
a) spermatogonia;
b) spermatocytes of the first order;
c) spermatids;
d) a second-order spermatocytes.
287) In the process of spermatogenesis end of the growth period is education:
a) spermatogonia;
b) spermatocytes of the first order;
c) spermatids;
d) a second-order spermatocytes.
288) In the process of spermatogenesis by the first meiotic division formed:
a) spermatogonia;
b) spermatocytes of the first order;
c) spermatids;
d) a second-order spermatocytes.
289) In the process of spermatogenesis in a second meiotic division formed:
a) spermatogonia;
b) spermatocytes of the first order;
c) spermatids;
d) a second-order spermatocytes.
290) When spermatogenesis as a result of meiosis I are formed:
a) 5 spermatogonia;
b) 2 spermatocytes of the first order;
B) 4 spermatids;
d) two second-order spermatocytes.
291) When spermatogenesis as a result of meiosis II are formed:
a) 5 spermatogonia;
b) 2 spermatocytes of the first order;
c) 4 spermatids;
d) two second-order spermatocytes.
292) The essence of the second meiotic division during spermatogenesis is reduced to:
a) bringing the double amount of DNA in accordance with the chromosome set;
b) divergence to the poles of chromosomes cells and not chromatids;
c) conjugation of homologous chromosomes;
d) the location of the equator cells homologous chromosomes.
293) The sperm of mammals consists of:
a) head, neck, tail;
b) gonads, neck, tail;
c) The head of the flagellum, the cervix;
d) the gonads, the flagellum, the cervix.
294) The role of sperm acrosome in:
a) the formation of enzymes that dissolve the egg membrane during fertilization;
b) generation of energy for the movement of flagella and centrioles;
c) synthesis of hormones;
d) formation of enzymes that dissolve the membrane egg at fertilization and generation of energy for the movement of flagella and centrioles.
295) The function of the sperm:
a) introduction of genetic information into the egg;
b) participation in the formation of embryonic membranes;
c) the accumulation of proteins and ATP for the development of the embryo;
d) generating energy.
296) occurs in Oogenesis:
a) the testes;
b) the ovaries;
c) uterus;
d) testes, ovaries, uterus.
297) The periods of oogenesis:
a) the development, reproduction, growth;
b) the reproduction, growth, maturation;
c) the growth, maturation, formation;
d) ripening, the formation and development.
298) The primary female sex cells are called:
a) oogonia;
b) first order oocytes;
c) oocytes of the second order;
d) egg.
299) At the completion of oogenesis period of growth is education
a) oogonia;
b) the oocytes of the first order;
c) oocytes of the second order;
d) eggs.
300) When oogenesis as a result of the first meiotic division formed:
a) oogonia;
b) the oocytes of the second order, and the first of the guide body;
c) oocyte second order and the second body of the guide;
d) the egg and the second body of the guide.
301) If the result oogenesis second meiotic division formed:
a) oogonia;
b) the oocytes of the second order, and the first of the guide body;
c) oocytes of the second order, and the second body of the guide;
d) the egg and the second body of the guide.
302) The biological significance of the formation of the guide bodies oogenesis is:
a) the need to preserve the maximum amount in the egg yolk needed for the future development of the embryo;
b) maintaining the constancy of the chromosome set, characteristic of this type of organisms;
c) recovery in the zygote diploid set of chromosomes;
d) maintaining the constancy of the chromosome set, characteristic of this type of organisms in the recovery in the zygote diploid set of chromosomes.
a) introduction of genetic information into the sperm and its activation to develop;
b) provides the initial embryogenesis energy and nutrients;
c) the accumulation of proteins, ATP;
d) generating energy.
a) the output of the second order of the oocyte from the ovary;
b) forming a first order oocyte;
c) egg formation;
d) destruction of the guide bodies.
305) The process of fusion of male and female gametes are called:
a) germ line;
b) fertilization;
c) insemination;
d) parthenogenesis.
306) The biological significance of fertilization is:
a) the need to preserve the maximum amount in the egg yolk needed for the future development of the embryo;
b) maintaining the constancy of the chromosome set, characteristic of this type of organisms;
c) recovery in the zygote diploid set of chromosomes;
d) maintaining the constancy of the chromosome set, characteristic of this type of organisms in the recovery in the zygote diploid set of chromosomes.
307) The development of an organism from an unfertilized egg cell is called:
a) conjugation;
b) insemination;
c) parthenogenesis;
d) conjugation, insemination, parthenogenesis.
308) In parthenogenesis, are formed:
a) only individuals of the same sex;
b) individual male and female;
c) hermaphrodites;
d) Only individuals of the same sex, the individual male and female.
309) haploid parthenogenesis occurs in:
a) aphids, Daphnia;
b) bees, ants;
c) rotifers, wasps;
d) of flowering plants.
310) diploid parthenogenesis occurs in:
a) aphids, Daphnia;
b) bees, ants;
c) rotifers, wasps;
d) of flowering plants.
311) The advantage of diploid parthenogenesis is:
a) the rapid growth in population;
b) the regulation of the number of descendants of different sexes;
c) the reliability of the connection of gametes;
d) the rapid growth of population size, reliability, coupled gametes.
312) The advantage of haploid parthenogenesis occurs in social insects, is to:
a) the rapid growth in population;
b) the regulation of the number of descendants of different sexes;
c) the reliability of the connection of gametes;
d) rapid growth in population, is securely connected to the gametes.
313) called a hermaphrodite organisms in which one and the same individual:
a) capable of producing both male and female gametes;
b) is capable of producing only male gametes;
c) is capable of producing only female gametes;
d) unable to produce both male and female gametes.
314) Androgyny is the most primitive form:
a) asexual reproduction;
b) vegetative propagation;
c) sexual reproduction;
d) parthenogenesis.
315) The biological significance of androgyny is:
a) the possibility of self-fertilization in the presence of only individuals;
b) maintaining the constancy of the chromosome set, properties this type of organisms;
c) recovery in the zygote diploid set of chromosomes;
d) maintaining the constancy of the chromosome set, characteristic of this type of organisms; in the recovery in the zygote diploid set of chromosomes.
316) The individual development of an organism from the zygote to the end of his life - is:
a) histogenesis;
b) organogenesis;
c) ontogenesis;
317) The period of time from the first division of the zygote prior to hatching or birth of young animals and birds to the germination of seeds of plants includes:
a) The embryonic development;
b) postembryonic development;
c) organogenesis;
d) embryonic development, postembryonic development, organogenesis.
318) The embryonic development of the majority of animals includes the following steps:
a) crushing, amniotes, allantois;
b) crushing, gastrulation, allantois;
c) crushing, gastrulation, organogenesis;
d) crushing, amnion, organogenesis.
319) division, resulting in an increase of cell growth without called:
a) crushing;
b) neurulation;
c) gastrulation;
d) organogenesis.
320) as a result of fragmentation:
a) gastrula (double layer cup-shaped embryo);
b) blastula (single multicellular embryo);
c) morula;
d) neurula.
321) Simple multicellular embryo - is:
a) the gastrula;
b) blastula;
c) morula;
d) neurula.
322) A process which is characterized by the movement of the cell material inside the blastula surface, called:
a) crushing;
b) amitosis;
c) gastrulation,
d) organogenesis.
323) Cupped embryo consisting of two germ layers is called:
a) the gastrula;
b) blastula;
c) morula;
d) neurula.
324) Outdoor embryonic leaf - is:
a) the mesoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) the endometrium;
d) the ectoderm.
325) The inner germinal listok- this:
a) the mesoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) the endometrium;
d) the ectoderm.
326) Average embryonic leaf - is:
a) the mesoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) the endometrium;
d) the ectoderm.
327) In the evolution of the animals developed germ layers in the following sequence:
a) the ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm;
b) the ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm;
c) the mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm;
d) the endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm.
328) of each cell differentiation process of embryonic leaf, resulting in the formation of tissues and organs, called:
a) crushing;
b) amitosis;
c) gastrulation;
d) organogenes.
329) The neural tube is formed of:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
330) Intestine is formed of:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
331) The sense organs, surface epithelium, with its glands and derived structures are formed from:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
332) The liver, pancreas formed iz
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
333) gills, lungs and swim bladder are formed of
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
334) Muscle tissue and all kinds of connective tissue are formed from:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c
335) The circulatory system is formed from:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c
336) The excretory system is formed from:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
337) The reproductive system is formed from:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
338) is formed from the chord:
a) the ectoderm;
b) the endoderm;
c) mesoderm;
d) a + b + c.
a) reptiles;
b) poultry;
c) a person;
d) a + b + c.
340) An important feature of embryonic development is the formation of amniotes:
a) the amnion;
b) The chorion;
c) the allantois;
d) a + b + c.
341) Outdoor blastoderm is called:
a) the chorion;
b) the allantois;
c) the amnion;
d) horiallantois.
342) ontogenesis period after birth or exit from the egg shells is called:
a) embryonic;
b) Postnatal;
c) organogenesis;
d) a + b + c.
343) The biological significance of metamorphosis is that:
a) larvae can feed yourself and grow, accumulating cellular material to form permanent bodies peculiar adult insects and animals;
b) free-living larvae attached or parasitic animals play an important role in the distribution of species, expanding their range;
c) the larvae are self-fertilizing;
d) larvae can feed yourself and grow, accumulating cellular material to form permanent bodies peculiar adult insects and animals; free-living larvae attached or parasitic animals play an important role in the distribution of species, expanding their range.
344) Periods of postembryonic development:
a) new-born, mature age;
b) newborn, young;
c) old age, long-lived;
d) newborn, adulthood, old age, long-lived.
345) at the molecular genetic level, in animals and humans leading mechanisms of aging are:
a) non-uniform change in the synthesis of RNA and proteins of different classes;
b) reducing the water content in the cytoplasm and changes the active transport of ions;
c) reduction of the meiotic cell activity and decrease the number of mitochondria;
d) appearance of gray hair, and loss of skin elasticity.
346) At the cellular level, in animals and humans lead aging mechanisms are:
a) non-uniform change in the synthesis of RNA and proteins of different classes;
b) reducing the water content in the cytoplasm and changes the active transport of ions;
c) reduction of the meiotic cell activity and decrease the number of mitochondria;
d) reducing the water content in the cytoplasm and changes the active transport of ions; reduction meiotic cell activity and decrease the number of mitochondria.
347) at the organismal level changes in aging expressed as:
a) non-uniform change in the synthesis of RNA and proteins of different classes;
b) reducing the water content in the cytoplasm and changes the active transport of ions;
c) reduction of the meiotic cell activity and decrease the number of mitochondria;
d) appearance of gray hair, and loss of skin elasticity.
348) Gerontology - the science of:
a) old age;
b) human relationship with the environment;
c) the individual development of the organism;
d) old age, individual development of the organism.
a) heredity;
b) variability;
c) metabolism;
d) heredity and variation.
350) The main tasks of genetics as a science include the study of:
a) storage methods of genetic information;
b) the physical storage media;
c) the types of irritability;
d) storage methods of genetic information and the mechanisms of characteristics’ investigation.
351) Property the body to pass on when breeding their characteristics and features development to offspring is called::
a) variability;
b) heredity;
c) dominance;
d) epistasis.
352) The set of external and internal characteristics of the organism, formed as a result of its development is called:
a) genotype;
b) phenotype;
c) karyotype;
d) gene pool
353) How many laws of genetics were discovered by Mendel?
a) 3;
b) 4;
c) 2;
в) 5
354) Traits are called alternative because they:
a) complement each other;
b) are mutually exclusive;
c) provide the manifestation of each other;
d) strengthen each other.
355) A pair of genes that determines a trait, is called:
a) locus;
b) allele;
c) epistasis;
d) chiasm.
356) Mendel discovered his laws in:
a) 1855 ; c) 1845;
b) 1865 ; d) 1875.
357) To determine the genotype of an organism is carried out interbreeding;
a) monohybrid crossing;
b) dihybrid crossing;
c) tess cross;
d) polyhybrid cross.
358) The set of all genes in the haploid chromosome set of an organism is:
a) genotype;
b) gene;
c) gene pool;
d) karyotype.
359) The term "gene" is proposed by:
a) Mendel;
b) V. Johansen;
c) K. Correns;
d) G. de Vries.
360) First conception date of genetics as a science are thought to be:
a) 1845 ;
b) 1900 ;
c) 1865 ;
d) 1909.
a) the property of organisms to transfer characteristics to the next generation;
b) the process of transferring genetic information to the next generation; rabbit
c) the probability of trait expression among F1;
d) obligate trait expression among F1.
362) Genes responsible for the expression of one and the same trait are called….?
a) alternative;
b) allelic;
c) codominant,
d) autosomal.
363) In monohybrid crossing of pure lines by genotype in the first generation there is a splitting:
a) 1: 1;
b) 3: 1;
c) uniformity;
d) 1: 2: 1.
364) A heterozygous black rabbit was crossed with the rabbit of the same species. What are the genotypes of baby rabbits?
a) AA;
b) Aa;
c) AA, Aa, aa;
d) Aa, aa.
365) Brown eye color is dominant over blue one among human beings. Determine the possible genotypes of the children born to heterozygous brown-eyed parents:
a) AA, Aa;
b) Aa;
c) AA, Aa, aa;
d) Aa, aa.
366) Determine the genotype of the parents, if dark-haired mother and blond father have 5 dark-haired children and 1 blond child:
a) AA*AA;
b) Aa*aa;
c) Aa*Aa;
d) Aa* aa.
367) What is the chance of heterozygous dark-haired parents to have a child with blond hair?
a) 10%;
b) 25%;
c) 5%;
d) 50%.
368) Analysing is called the crossing resembles the following::
a) AA * aa , aa * AA;
b) Aa* aa;
c) Aa * Aa;
d) F1 * P.
369) Is called a monohybrid cross in which the parental form:
a) belong to one and the same species;
b) belong to the same species of animals;
c) are different from each other by a pair of alternative characters and belong to the same species;
d) are different by two pairs of alternative characteristics.
370) Dominance of one trait over the other one among the F1 hybrids, and the uniformity of hybrids due to it was called :
a) the law of purity of gametes;
b) Mendel's second law;
c) the rule of dominance;
d) monohybrid cross.
371) Allelic genes are genes that:
a) control the expression of one and the same trait in organisms of different species;
b) localize in homologous chromosomes;
c) localize in different pairs of chromosomes at the same distance from the centromere;
d) occur at the same locus on homologous chromosomes and determine the alternative development of one and the same characteristics.
372 The interaction of allelic genes include:
a) dominance, epistasis;
b) complementarity, polymerу;
c) dominance, overdominance;
d) a polymer complementarity.
373) The proportion of heterozygotes at crossing of two homozygous lines (AA and a a) in the F2 generation is:
a) 25%;
b) 50%;
c) 75%;
d) 30%.
374) Phenotypic splitting in the F1 hybrids and a ratio of 1:1occur when:
a) both parents are homozygous;
b) both parents are heterozygous;
c) one parent is homozygous, while the second one is heterozygous;
d) one parent is homozygous recessive, and the second one is heterozygous.
375) Parental forms differ in following number of characteristics at the monohybrid cross:
a) 1;
b) 2;
c) 3;
d) n.
376) According to the second law of Mendel, the second generation in monohybrid crossing is evident following the number of individuals with the dominant trait (%):
a) 50;
b) 75;
c) 60;
d) 30.
377) In monohybrid crossing pure lines for the F1 phenotype is observed following breakdown:
a) 1: 1;
b) 3: 1;
c) uniformity;
d) 1: 2: 1.
378) How many characteristics of an experimental plant were studied by Mendel?
a) 2;
b) 5;
d) 7;
d) 4.
379) What method was applied by G. Mendel to study inheritance of characters:
a) cytological;
b) hybridological;
c) ontogenetic;
d) biochemical.
380) The object of research Mendel chose:
a) a bean;
b) a pumpkin;
c) garden peas;
d) sweet pea.
381) Offspring from crossing two individuals is called:
a) hybridous;
b) uniform;
c) multiform;
d) elite.
382) The line is called pure if it:
a) all genes are dominant;
b) no changes in several generations of offspring;
c) lack of lethal genes;
d) no possible mutations.
383) Mendel’s first law is found at crossing of:
a) any of the lines;
b) clean lines;
c) hybrids;
d) plants with alternative characteristics.
384) This is called a monohybrid cross in which the parental form::
a) belong to the same species;
b) belong to the same plant variety or animal breed;
c) differ from each other by one pair of alternative characteristics;
d) have a common ancestor.
385) Phenotypic splitting in the F2 generation in the ratio of 3: 1 is typical for:
a) test cross;
b) dihybrid crossing;
c) monohybrid cross;
d) polyhybrid cross.
386) The splitting of the phenotype in the F2 generation in the ratio of 9: 3: 3: 1 is typical for:
a) test cross;
b) dihybrid crossing;
c) monohybrid cross;
d) polyhybrid cross.
387) To obtain in the first hybrid generation all offspring c the dominant traits necessary to conduct the crossing:
a) homozygous dominant individual with recessive one;
b) two heterozygous individuals;
c) heterozygous individual with recessive one;
d) two recessive individuals.
388) In humans the presence of antigen Rh (phenotype Rh + -) in erythrocyte is determined by a dominant gene D. Its allele d causes the lack of its antigen (phenotype rh-rh-). The probability of baby birth with Rh-positive by heterozygous parents is:
a) 100%;
b) 25%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
389) In humans the presence of antigen Rh (phenotype Rh + -) in erythrocyte in humans is determined by a dominant gene D. Its allele d causes the lack of its antigen (phenotype rh-rh-). The probability of baby birth with Rh-negative by heterozygous parents is:
a) 100%;
b) 25%;
c) 50%;
в) 75%.
390) In humans, the presence of antigen Rh (phenotype Rh + -) is determined by a dominant gene D. Its allele d causes the lack of its antigen (phenotype rh-rh -.) The probability of baby birth with Rh-negative, if the mother is Rhesus heterozygotic, and the father is homozygotic for the recessive allele is:
а) 25%;
b) 50%;
c) 75%;
d) 100%.
391) While crossing pear-shaped tomatoes with round-shaped tomatos there are 79 round-shaped plants and 76 pear-shaped plants. Determine the genotypes of the parents:
a) Aa *Aa;
b) Aa*AA;
c) Aa* aa;
d) AA*aa.
392) The phenotypic splitting ratio for the dihybrid crossing of heterozygotes with complete domination is the following:
a) 1: 2: 1;
c) 9: 3: 3: 1;
b) 1: 1;
d) 3: 1.
393) The conditions required for the manifestation of Mendel's laws is:
a) complete dominance;
b) non-allelic interaction;
c) the presence of lethal genes;
d) linkage of genes.
394) Inheritance of blood groups is an example of:
a) multiple allelism;
c) epistasis;
b) codominance;
d) expressivity.
395) Father’s blood group I, mother’s blood group II. What blood group can have their children?
a) only I;
c) I and II;
b) only II;
d) III and I.
396) Father’s group of blood II, mother’s blood group III. What blood group can have their child?
a) I, II, III, IV;
c) I, II, III;
b) II, III;
d) II, III, IV.
397) Father’s blood group I, mother’s blood group IV. What blood group can have their child?
a) I and IV;
a) I;
b) II, III;
d) I, II, III, IV.
393) Father’s blood group III, children have IV, I blood groups. What are their parents’ genotypes?
a) IAIA, IBI0.
c) IAIO, IBI0.
b) IAIO, IBIB;
d) IOIO, IAIB.
394) Dominant epistasis is characterized by the ratio at segregation of:
a) 9: 7;
b) 15: 1;
c) 3: 1;
d) 13: 3.
395) When the non-cumulative Polimeri F2 is observed in the breakdown:
a) 9: 7;
b) 15: 1;
c) 3: 1;
d) 13: 3.
396) The term of genetic linkage was introduced by:
a) Mendel; c) V. Johansen;
b) T. Morgan; d) T. Boveri.
397) The number of linkage groups corresponds to:
a) haploid set of chromosomes;
b) diploid set of chromosomes;
c) the total number of genes in the chromosome;
d) the number of gene triplets.
398) The interaction of allelic genes include:
a) codominance, epistasis;
b) complementarity, polymery;
c) dominance, overdominance;
d) polymery, complementarity.
399) Parents’blood groups are I and IV. What blood group are children supposed to have?
a) I, IV;
b) II, III;
a) I, III;
d) only IV.
a) greater degree of heterozygous expressivity (A a) than among any of homozygotes (AA or a a);
b) the effect of one gene on several traits;
c) the independent expression of both alleles in the phenotype in heterozygous individuals;
d) lower degree of heterozygous expressivity (A a) than among any of homozygotes (AA or a a);).
401) Nonallelic genes are genes that:
a) are linked in chromosomes;
b) are located in different chromosomes;
c) are located in sex chromosomes;
d) are at different loci of non-homologous chromosomes, but control the expression of one trait.
402) The inheritance of human skin color is an example of:
a) cumulative polymery;
c) codominance;
b) pleiotropy;
d) dominant epistasis.
403) Both parents have blood groups III and I, their child has the blood group I. What is the probability that the next child will have the blood group I?
a) 25%;
b) 0%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
404) Both parents have blood groups III and II, their child has the blood group I. What is the probability that the next child will have the blood group III?
a) 25%;
b) 0%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
405) Both parents are heterozygous for blood groups (the mother’s blood group is II, and the father’s blood group is III), they have a child. What is the probability that this child has the blood group I?
a) 25%;
b) 0%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
406) Both parents are heterozygous for blood groups (the mother’s blood group is II, and the father’s blood group is III), they have a child. What is the probability that this child has the blood group II?
a) 25%;
b) 0%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
407) Both parents are heterozygous for blood groups (the mother’s blood group is II, and the father’s blood group is III), they have a child. What is the probability that this child has blood group III?
a) 25%;
b) 0%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
408) Both parents are heterozygous for blood groups (the mother’s blood group is II, and the father’s blood group is III), they have a child. What is the probability that this child has the blood group IV?
a) 25%;
b) 0%;
c) 50%;
d) 75%.
409) The child has the blood group IV, the father’s blood group is III. What is the mother’s blood group?
a) I;
b) II;
a) III;
d) IV.
410) The child has the blood group IV, the father’s blood group is II. What is the mother’s blood group?
a) I;
b) II;
a) III;
d) IV.
411) The child has the blood group I, the father’s blood group is II. What is the mother’s blood group?
a) I, II, III;
b) I, II, IV;
c) only I;
d) I, II.
412) The child has the blood group II, the father’s blood group is III. What is the mother’s blood group?
a) I;
b) II;
a) IV;
d) II, IV.
413) Epistasis is an interaction of nonallelic genes, where:
a) a gene of one allele pair inhibits the action of a gene of another allelic pair;
b) there are two genes of different allelic pairs simultaneously in the genotype, that leads to one new characteristic;
c) a gene is responsible for the expression of several characteristics;
d) several genes affect the degree of characteristic manifestation.
414) Polymery is an interaction of nonallelic gene where:
a) a gene of one allele pair inhibits the action of a gene of another allelic pair;
b) a gene is responsible for the manifestation of several characteristics;
c) several genes affect the degree of characteristic manifestation;
d) genes of different allelic pairs don’t affect each other.
415) Pleiotropy is a phenomenon where :
a) a gene of one allele pair inhibits the action of a gene of another allelic pair;
b) a gene is responsible for the manifestation of several characteristics;
c) several genes affect the degree of characteristic manifestation;
d) genes of different allelic pairs don’t affect each other.
416) Protein synthesis consists of the following stages:
a) replication and transcription;
b) reparation and translation;
c) transcription and translation;
d) replication and reparation.
417) How many amino acids are involved in protein synthesis?
a) 64;
b) 20;
c) 38;
d) 51
a) one of the forms of genetic information exchange;
b) the process of protein synthesis as directed by the mRNA template, performed by ribosomes;
c) the process of reading of genetic information from DNA to iRNA (informational riziform);
d) a mutation in which there is a replacement of purine bases in the DNA strand.
a) one of the forms of genetic information exchange;
b) the process of protein synthesis as directed by the iRNA template, performed by ribosomes;
c) the process of reading of genetic information from DNA to iRNA;
d ) a mutation occurred in the process of protein biosynthesis.
420) An intron – a nucleotide sequence in DNA that:
a) carries genetic information of a specific protein;
b) doesn’t carry genetic information;
c) gives rise to synthesis;
d) informs about the end of protein synthesis.
421) Pair wise approximation of homologous chromosomes and interlacement of their chromatids are called:
a) transversion;
c) insertion;
b) conjugation;
d) duplication.
422) Codon – a DNA part which encodes:
a) protein;
c) nucleotide triplet;
b) one trait;
d) one gene.
423) One amino acid is encoded by three:
a) nucleotides;
c) genes;
b) triplets;
d) codons.
424) The set of genes that are in the same chromosome, is called:
a) linkage group;
c) panmixis;
b) reading group;
d) exon.
425) The distance between genes in one chromosome is measured by:
a) exons;
c) operons;
b) Morgan units;
d) percentage.
426) Correction of mutational damages of genes in DNA is called:
a) replication;
c) back mutation;
b) reparation;
d) reconstruction.
427) Directional transport and insertion of foreign DNA into the cell genetic apparatus without viruses and bacteriophages are called:
a) transformation;
c) broadcast;
b) transduction;
d) transcription.
428) A DNA part encoding the primary structure of one protein molecule or one of tRNA or rRNA molecules is called:
a) nucleotide;
c) gene;
b) amino acid;
d) exon.
429) How many hydrogen bonds are between adenine and thymine of neighboring polynucleotide molecules of DNA?
a) 4;
b) 2;
c) 3;
d) 1.
430) How many hydrogen bonds are between guanine and cytosine of neighboring polynucleotide molecules of DNA?
a) 4;
b) 2;
c) 3;
d) 1.
431) Due to intra-chain hydrogen bonds a tRNA molecule get the form of:
a) a horsetail stem;
c) a maple leaf;
b) a cloverleaf;
d) a pea flagellum.
432) RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because RNA molecules contain:
a) ribose instead of deoxyribose;
b) adenine instead of thymine;
c) uracil instead of guanine;
d) uracil instead of cytosine.
433) RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because the first one includes:
a) uracil instead of thymine;
b) purine instead of thymine;
c) nitric acid residues instead of phosphoric acid residues;
d) thymine instead of guanine.
434) The function of the DNA molecule in a cell is:
a) to store and to transmit genetic information;
b) storage;
c) structural;
d) energetic.
435) The structural unit of DNA is:
a) gene;
c) amino acid;
b) nucleotide;
d) 3 nucleotides.
436) What connections are connected to the adjacent nucleotides in the polynucleotide chain of DNA?
a) ionic;
c) hydrogen;
b) covalent;
d) peptide.
437) Chargaff's first parity rule is:
a) A = G;
c) A = C;
b) A = T;
d) A = U
438) Chargaff's second parity rule is:
a) A + G = T + C;
c) U + A= T + C;
b) A + T = G + C;
d) A + U = G + C
439) Heredity, carried out with the help of DNA molecules in plastids and mitochondria, is called:
a) cytoplasmic;
b) mitochondrial;
c) maternal;
d) cytoplasmic, maternal.
a) a full range of chromosomal genes;
b) a scheme of positional relationship of genes;
c) a scheme of positional relationship in linkage groups;
d) positional relationship, an order and a distance between genes of a certain linkage group.
441) Both in meiosis and mitosis:
a) the number of chromosomes remains the same as in the maternal cell;
b) the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells is reduced by half;
c) there is cell proliferation;
d) the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells is redoubled.
442) The complementarity principle underlies the interaction of:
a) amino acids and the formation of the primary structure of protein;
b) nucleotides and the formation of double-stranded DNA molecules;
c) glucoses and the formation of polysaccharide;
d) glycerol, fatty acids and the formation of lipids.
443) The egg and the sperm cell contain:
a) the diploid set of chromosomes;
b) the haploid set of chromosomes;
c) a small supply of nutrients;
d) a large supply of nutrients.
444) Both in meiosis and mitosis there is (are):
a) two cell fissions;
c) two DNA duplications;
b) one cell fission;
d) one DNA duplication.
445) In the process of meiosis with conjugation and crossing-over can occur:
a) somatic mutations;
b) phenotypic changes;
c) new combinations of genes;
d) polyploids.
446) Two desoxyribose chain, the nitrogen bases are connected by hydrogen bonds form a molecule: hydrogen bonds:
a) protein;
c) DNA;
b) tRNA;
d) ATP.
447) One chromosome duplication and two consecutive fissions are typical for:
a) mitosis;
c) fertilization;
b) sporation;
d) meiosis.
448) Law of genetic linkage was opened by linked inheritance law established by:
a) G. Mendel;
c) H. de Vries;
b) T. Morgan;
d) W. Setton and T. Boveri.
449) The chromosome theory of heredity was formulated by:
a) G. Mendel;
c) H. de Vries;
b) T. Morgan;
d) V. Johansen.
450) The concept of genetic linkage was introduced by:
a) GMendel;
c) V. Johansen;
b) T. Morgan;
d) T. Boveri.
451) The number of linkage groups corresponds to:
a) the haploid set of chromosomes;
b) the diploid set of chromosomes;
c) the total number of genes in the chromosome;
d) all answers are incorrect.
452) What statement does not apply to the basic statements of the chromosome theory of heredity by T. Morgan?
a) genetic information transfer are connected to chromosomes;
b) genes in chromosomes are arranged linearly;
c) genes in chromosome are formed linkage groups;
d) linkage of genes are total.
453) T. Morgan’ law applies to:
a) purity of gametes;
c) genetic drift;
b) linkage of genes;
d) mechanism of sex determination.
454) Crossingover, the process where homologous chromosomes exchange their segments with each other, takes place in:
a) mitosis at the stage of four chromosomes;
b) meiosis prophase I ;
c) meiosis anaphase I;
d) meiosis prophase II.
455) The result of crossingover is:
a) multiple increase of the chromosome number ;
b) a decrease of the number of chromosomes;
c) the exchange of genetic information between homologous chromosomes;
d) the formation of new combinations of genes, providing a quantitative variation of organisms.
456) The scheme of mutual arrangement of genes located in the same linkage group is called:
a) genome;
c) genetic map;
b) genofond;
d) karyotype.
457) When linked inheritance dihybrid AB//AB forms:
a) 2 types of gametes;
c) 3 types of gametes;
b) 4 types of gametes;
d) 6 types of gametes.
458) Crossingover leads to:
a) the formation of new genes;
b) the redistribution of genes;
c) the loss of genes;
d) destroying of the linkage.
459) The conjugation of the chromosomes is a combination of two homologous chromosomes at:
a) mitosis;
c) fertilization;
b) meiosis;
d) pollination.
460) Conjugation and crossing-over take place in:
a) prophase of meiosis I;
b) prophase of meiosis II;
c) interphase before cell fission;
d) the process of fertilization.
461) In the process of meiosis with conjugation and crossing-over can to occur:
a) somatic mutations;
b) phenotypic changes;
c) new combinations of genes;
d) polyploids.
462) If the genes responsible for the development of several signs are located on the same chromosome, is manifested the law:
a) segregation;
b) genetic linkage;
c) incomplete dominance;
d) independent inheritance,
463) Conjugation and crossing-over are of a great importance for the evolution, as these processes contribute to:
a) increasing the progeny-viability;
b) filling the population by genetic changes;
c) preserving the genofond of the population;
d) occuring polyploids.
464) Chiasmata is observed during:
a) prophase I of meiosis;
b) telophase I of meiosis;
c) anaphase I of meiosis;
d) metaphase I of meiosis.
465) The frequency of recombination between genes A and B is equal to 4%, it means that:
a) the probability of linkage is 4%;
b) the probability of adhesion is 96% (100 - 4);
c) the distance between genes is 4 Morgan units;
d) the distance between the genes is 96 Morgan unit (100 - 4).
a) random changes in allelic frequency;
b) changes of allelic frequency, caused by natural selection;
c) elimination of pathogenic genes;
d) changes of allelic frequency as a result of selective breeding.
467) The concept of mutation has been introduced by:
a) G. Mendel;
c) T. Morgan;
b) H. de Vries;
d) V. Johansen.
468) Changes in the number of chromosomes, which is not multiple of the haploid set, is:
a) aneuploidy;
c) haploidy;
b) polyploidy;
d) mutation.
469) Reduction of the diploid number of chromosomes by half is called :
a) aneuploidy;
c) polyploidy;
b) haploidy;
d) mutation.
470) The increase of the number of chromosomes, which is a multiple of the haploid set, is:
a) aneuploidy;
c) polyploidy;
b) haploidy;
d) mutation.
471) Mutations , altering the sequence of nucleotides in a gene are called:
a) genomic;
b) genetic;
c) physiological;
d) amorphous.
472) Mutations that result in duplication of one pair or several pairs of nucleotides, are called:
a) insertion;
c) a deletion;
b) duplication;
d) lack.
473) Mutations that result in insertion of a pair or several pairs of nucleotides is called:
a) insertion;
c) a deletion;
b) duplication;
d) lack.
474) Mutations that result in dropout of nucleotides, are called:
a) insertion;
c) duplication;
b) deletion;
d) lack.
474) Mutations that result in rearrangement of the gene fragments, are called:
a) inversion;
c) deletion;
b) duplication
d) lack.
475) Mutations that result in loss of the end of chromosome, are called:
a) lack;
c) duplication;
b) deletion;
d) fragile X syndrome.
476) Mutations that result in replacement of one pair of nucleotides by the other are called:
a) inversion;
b) replacement of nucleotides;
c) lack;
d) deletion.
477) Polyploidy, aneuploidy, haploidy are mutations:
a) genomic;
c) genetic;
b) chromosomal;
d) interchromosomal.
478) By the level of occuring mutations can be:
a) recessive;
c) hypomorphic;
b) gene;
d) somatic.
479) By the nature of manifestation mutations can be:
a) genetic;
c) amorphous;
b) recessive;
d) somatic.
480) By the origin mutations can be:
a) spontaneous;
c) neomorphic;
b) lethal;
d) biochemical
481) By the effect on the viability mutations can be:
a) dominant;
c) amorphous;
b) neutral;
d) physiological.
482) By the origin mutations can be:
a) spontaneous;
c) dominant;
b) chromosomal;
d) generative.
483) By the place of occurring mutations can be:
a) somatic;
c) genetic;
b) physiological;
d) genomic.
484) According to phenotypic expression mutations can be:
a) biochemical;
c) lethal;
b) genetic;
d) somatic.
a) gradually;
b) abruptly;
c) after several generations;
d) the reasons are unknown.
486) Phenotypic changes ,which have been caused by environmental factors and are not related to genotypic changes , are called:
a) mutation;
c) modification;
b) evolution;
d) variability.
a) viruses;
c) morphine;
b) bacteria;
d) sunlight.
488) Type of hereditary variability caused by different changes in genes, chromosomes, genomes:
a) the norm of reaction;
b) mutative ;
c) combinative;
d) modification.
489) The norm of reaction - is:
a) the type of genetic variability, caused by various changes in genes;
b) the limit of modification variability caused by a genotype;
c) the result of recombinations of genes and chromosomes;
d) gametic syngamy at fertilization.
490) Graphic expression of variability of characteristics, reflecting the range of variability and frequency of occurrence of characteristics is called:
a) variation number;
b) variation curve;
c) variation range;
d) general totality.
491) A number of the modification variability of characteristics composed of individual values, put in order of increasing quantification is called:
a) variation number;
b) variation curve;
c) histogram;
d) variation range.
492) Haploid is a body with:
a) the normal number of chromosomes (2n);
b) half as much the number of chromosomes;
c) an extra chromosome;
d) multiple increase of chromosomes.
493) Aneuploidy is a body with:
a) the normal number of chromosomes;
b) half as much the number of chromosomes;
c) an extra chromosome;
d) multiple increase of chromosomes.
494) Polyploidy is a body with:
a) the normal number of chromosomes;
b) half as much the number of chromosomes;
c) an extra chromosome;
d) multiple increase of chromosomes.
495) A similar series of genetic variability ,typical for allied species and races, are called:
a) evolutionary;
b) homological;
c) mutational;
d) population-based.
496) The balance of allelic frequencies in a population are not maintained due to this factor:
a) large number and density of a population;
b) panmixis within a population;
c) high intensity of mutagenesis;
d) migration of individuals from other populations is virtually absent,
497) The reason for changes in the population genofond can not be:
a) artificial selection;
b) natural selection;
c) mutagenesis;
d) genetic drift.
a) the increase in the number of mutants;
b) the change of the gene position in chromosomes;
c) the random change of allelic frequencies in a population;
d) the exchange of genes between different populations.
499) The drift of genes is typical for:
a) numerous populations, where all alleles typical for the given population are presented;
b) small in numbers populations, where not all the alleles typical for this population can be presented;
c) any of the mentioned above populations, which have all the alleles that are typical for this populations;
d) a population where mutants are presented.
500) Mutations that lead to a change in the chromosome number, are called:
a) genomic;
c) hypomorphic;
b) genetic;
d) neomorphic.