I. Cytology
1. Choose the correct answer. What year was the term biology introduced in?
   A. The term biology was introduced in 1665
   B. The term biology was introduced in 1900
   C. The term biology was introduced in 1802
2. Choose the correct answer. Who from scientists introduced the term biology into science?
   A. C. Darwin and G. Mendel
   B. J.B. Lamark and L. Treviranus
   C. G. Mendel and T. Morgan
3. Choose the correct answer. Why is the biology a complex science?
   A. She studies only animals
   B. She only studies viruses
   C. It includes many private discipline
4. Choose the correct answer. What does the biology study as a science?
   A. She studies the life of algae
   B. She studies all the manifestations of life
   C. She studies the life of mushrooms and plants
5. Choose the correct answer. What is the subject of study on the ontogenetic level of the organization of the living?
   A. Elementary unit is a gen
   B. Elementary unit is a cell
   C. Elementary unit is a molecular
   D. Elementary unit is the body
6. Choose the correct answer. What elementary phenomenon is studied at the population-species level?
   A. A change in the gene pool
   B. A growth of the organism
   C. A processes of differentiation of the cells
7. Choose the correct answer. What substances are associated the manifestation of life with?
   A. They are carbohydrates and mucopolysaccharides
   B. They are lipids and phospholipids
   C. They are proteins and nucleic acidis
8. Choose the correct answer. What fundamental properties of  living organisms do you know?
   A. Heredity and variability
   B. Reproduction and self-renewal
   C. Growth and development
9. Choose the correct answer. What does the term irritability mean?
   A. Adaptation of an organism
   B. Response to irritation
   C. Metabolism and energy
10. Choose the correct answer. What does the term self-regulation mean?
   A. Is a process, as a result of which structures corresponding to the lost are restored
   B. Is it the less compact DNA form
   C. Is a property of systems to maintain internal stability at a сertain, relatively constant level 
11. Choose the correct answer. What does the term self- renewal?
   A. Is maintains the integrity of genes and controls the activities of the cell
   B. Is a process, as a result of which structures corresponding to the lost are restored
   C. Is the complex of chemical processes that takes place in a living organism
12. Choose the correct answer. What does the term heredity?
   A. Is determines the appearance of new features in organisms
   B. Is preserves the continuity and sustainability of life
   C. A growth of the organism
13. Choose the correct answer. What does the term irritability?
   A. A change in the gene pool
   B. The ability to respond to stimuli
   C. A processes of differentiation of the cells
14. Choose the correct answer. What does the term a growth of the organism?
   A. Provides continuity between generations of organisms
   B. Increase in the number or size of its cell
   C. It is a form of the body’s response to irritation
15. Choose the correct answer. What does the term variability?
   A. A processes of differentiation of the cells
   B. Determines the appearance of new features in organisms
   C. Is the realization of the cycle of substances and energy
16. Choose the correct answer. What is the chemical element related to microelements:
   A. О2 (oxygen)
   B. Р (phosphorus)
   C. H (hydrogen)
   D. С (carbon)
   G. N (nitrogen)
17. Choose two correct answers. What substance is related to hexoses:
   A. ribose
   B. sucrose
   C. lactic acid
   D. fructose
   G. lactose
18. Choose the correct answer. What substance is related to trioses: 
  A. ribose
  B. sucrose
  C. lactic acid
  D. fructose
  G. lactose
19. Choose the correct answer.  What substance is related to trioses: 
   A. pyruvic acid
   B. ribose
   C. sucrose
   D. fructose
19. Choose the correct answer.  What substance is classified as structural polysaccharides:
   A. ribose
   B. sucrose
   C. starch
   D. lactose
   G. cellulose
20. Choose the correct answer.  Which group of biopolymers includes glycogen to:
   A. to monosaccharides
   B. to oligosaccharides
   C. to polysaccharides
   D. to proteins
21. Choose the correct answer.  Which carbohydrates are belongs to pentoses:
   A. deoxyribose
   B. sucrose
   C. fructose
   D.  mannose
22. Choose the correct answer.  How many carbon atoms are included in the deoxyribose:
   A. three
   B. four
   C. five
   D. six 
23. Choose the correct answer.  What is the function of the water in the cell associated with biopolymers:
   A. of solvent
   B. cell turgor
   C. colloidal properties of the cytoplasm
   D. isolation of substances
24. Choose the correct answer. Which carbohydrates are belongs to pentoses:
   A. ribose
   B. maltose
   C. sucrose
   D. fructose
   G. mannose
25. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are providing the permeability of cell membranes:
   A. Ca2+, Cu2+
   B. Na+, K+, Cl-
   C. Zn2+, Mg2+
26. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are regulating blood clotting: 
    A. Ca2+ 
    B. Na+  
    C. Zn2+
    D. Mg2+
27. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are included in the chlorophyll molecule:
   A. Fe3+
   B. Cu2+
   C. Zn2+
   D. Mg2+
28. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are included in the insulin molecule:
   A. Ca2+ 
   B. Na+  
   C. Zn2+
   D. Mg2+
29. Choose the correct answer. What substances in cells regulate the speed of formation of complex organic compounds:
   A. vitamins
   B. enzymes
   C. antibodies
   D. proteins
30. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are parts of the tooth in the largest number:
   A. Ca2+ and F
   B. Na+ and Zn2+  
   C. Fe3+ and Cu2+
   D. Mg2+ and Na+
31. Choose two correct answers. Fats in a living organism are necessary for the implementation of processes:
   A. protein biosynthesis
   B. stock of nutrients
   C. regulation of physiological processes
   D. self-reproduction
32. Choose two correct answers. The protective role of proteins in a living organism is related to:
   A. the formation of new proteins in accordance with the genetic program
   B. the formation of antibodies in the surface cell apparatus
   C. the formation of protein-enzymes
   D. the formation in the blood of specific proteins against foreign agents
   G. formation of hormones
33. Choose two correct answers. Irreplaceable amino acids are those that:
   A. can not be replaced by another substance
   B. can not be synthesized in animals
   C. come into the body with food
   D. synthesized only by animals
34. Choose two correct answers. Carbohydrates in the body participate:
   A. in enzymatic processes
   B. in the energy processes
   C. in plastic processes
   D. in the transport of substances
35. Choose the correct answer. What level of the organization of the living, the study of the structure of enzymes is carried out:
   A. on ontogenetic level
   B. population-specific level
   C. cellular level
   D. molecular genetic level
36. Choose the correct answer. The primary structure of the protein is formed by:
   A. peptide bonds
   B. sulfhydryl bonds
   C. hydrogen bonds
   D. covalent bonds
37. Choose the correct answer. The secondary structure of the protein is formed by:
   A. peptide bonds
   B. sulfhydryl bonds
   C. hydrogen bonding
   D. covalent bonds
38. Choose the correct answer. What substances serve as universal biological energy accumulators in the cell:
   A. of proteins
   B. of lipids
   C. of DNA
   D. of ATP
39. Choose the correct answer.  Monomers of proteins are:
   A. are nucleotides
   B. are nitrogenous bases
   C. are glycerin
   D. are amino acids
   G. are glucose
40. Choose the correct answer.  How much energy is released when splitting 1 gram of protein:
   A. 8.4 kcal 
   B. 4.2 kcal
   C. 2.5 kcal
   D. 9.3 kcal
41. Choose the correct answer. In the formation of ATP from ADP in one phosphorus bond is stored:
   A. 25 kJ
   B. 42 kJ
   C. 10 kJ
   D. 40 kJ
42. Choose the correct answer. Water molecules enter the cell:
   A. by diffusion
   B. with transport membrane proteins
   C. by phagocytosis
   D. by osmosis
43. Choose the correct answer. Starch refers to:
   A. monosaccharides
   B. oligosaccharides
   C. polysaccharides
44. Choose the correct answer. Renaturation is not possible when the:
   A. the primary structure is destroyed
   B. the secondary structure is destroyed
   C. the tertiary structure is destroyed
   D. the quaternary structure is destroyed
45. Choose the correct answer. The compound that plays a decisive role in maintaining the osmotic pressure in the cell is:
   A. is protein
   B. is ATP
   C. is sodium chloride
   D. is lipids
46. Choose the correct answer. Which chemical compound is present in RNA, but absent in DNA:
   A. thymine
   B. deoxyribose
   C. ribose
   D.guanine
   G. cytosine
47. Choose the correct answer. What kind of chemical compound is not a carbohydrate:
   A. chitin
   B. keratin
   C. lactose
   D. galactose
   G. starch
48. Choose the correct answer. What is the chemical element related to microelements:
   A. О2 (oxygen)
   B. I (iodine)
   C. H (hydrogen)
   D. С (carbon)
   G. N (nitrogen)
49. Choose the correct answer.  How much energy is released when splitting 1 gram of  lipids:
   A. 9.3 kcal
   B. 4.2 kcal
   C. 2.5 kcal
   D. 7.4 kcal
50. Choose the correct answer.  The protein molecule consists of sequentially arranged: 
   A. of nucleotides
   B. of nitrogenous bases
   C. of amino acids
   D. of triplets
51. Choose the correct answer.  How many carbon atoms are included in the ribose:
   A. three
   B. four
   C. five
   D. six 
52. Choose the correct answer.  Specificity of the protein molecule provides the structure of the protein:
   A. the primary
   B. the secondary
   C. the tertiary
   D. the quaternary
53. Choose the correct answer.  The formation of globules is characteristic of the structure of the protein:
   A. the primary
   B. the secondary
   C. the tertiary
   D. the quaternary
54. Choose the correct answer. The tertiary structure of the protein is formed by:
   A. peptide bonds
   B. sulfhydryl bonds
   C. hydrogen bonding
   D. covalent bonds
55. Choose the correct answer. What is the RNA monomer:
   A. are amino acids
   B. are nucleotides
   C. are nitrogenous bases
   D. are ribose
56. Choose two correct answers. Fats in a living organism are necessary for the implementation of processes:
   A. protein biosynthesis
   B. stock of nutrients
   C. self-reproduction
57. Choose the correct answer. Who from the scientists discovered the nucleic acids:
   A. Jacob and Mono
   B. Misсher
   C. Watson and Crick
   D. Davidson
58. Choose the correct answer. What substance is related to hexoses:
   A. deoxyribose
   B. sucrose
   C. mannose
   D. fructose
   G. lactose
59. Choose the correct answer.  Structural proteins function as follows:
   A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis)
   B. the transfer of hormones
   C. ion transport
   D. supporting function
   G. transport (transport) of water
60. Choose the correct answer. Which carbohydrates are belongs to pentoses:
   A. deoxyribose
   B. maltose
   C. sucrose
   D. fructose
   G. mannose
61. Choose the correct answer. What kind of chemical bonds that are formed between nucleotides in one nucleotide chain:
   A.hydrogen
   B.covalent
   C. ionic
   D. hydrophobic
62. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the protein in the hair:
   A. keratin 
   B. tubulin 
   C. fibrin 
   D. collagen
   G. myosin
63. Choose the correct answer.  How much energy is released when splitting 1 gram of  carbohydrates:
   A. 9.3 kcal
   B. 4.2 kcal
   C. 2.5 kcal
   D. 7.4 kcal
64. Choose the correct answer.  Which group of biopolymers includes mannose to:
   A. to monosaccharides
   B. to oligosaccharides
   C. to polysaccharides
   D. to proteins
65. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are included in the hemoglobin molecule:
   A. Fe3+
   B. Cu2+
   C. Zn2+
   D. Mg2+
66. Choose the correct answer. From the principle of complementarity, it follows:
   A. A + T / G + C
   B. A + G = T + C
   C. A + T = T + C
   D. A / G = 1
67. Choose the correct answer.  Where is the synthesis of ATP:
   A. in ribosomes
   B. in lysosomes
   C. in mitochondria
   D. in mitochondria and lysosomes
68. Choose the correct answer. What do lysosomes contain:
   A. oxidoreductase
   B. set of nucleic acids
   C. glycogen
   D. fats
   G. hydrolytic enzymes 
69. Choose the correct answer. Centrioles are part of:
   A. lamellar complex
   B. cell center
   C. plastids
   D. centromere 
70. Choose the correct answer. What number of microtubules is part of the cell center:
   A. 34
   B. 27
   C. 68
   D. 54
71. Choose the correct answer. What types of inclusions does glycogen belong to:
   A. pigmented
   B. trophic
   C. secretory
   D. nonspecific
72. Choose the correct answer. What types of inclusions does hemoglobin belong to:
   A. pigmented
   B. trophic    
   C. secretory
   D. nonspecific
   G. special
73. Choose the correct answer. Which organelles do not have a membrane structure:
   A. mitochondria and plastids
   B. cell center and ribosomes
   C. EPS and Golgi complex
   D. spherosomes and lysosomes
74. Choose the correct answer. A mandatory part of any cell is:
   A. core
   B. lysosomes
   C. cytoplasm 
   D. plastids
75. Choose the correct answer. Synthesis of carbohydrates is carried out:
   A. on ribosomes
   B. in mitochondria
   C. in the core
   D. on smooth EPS
76. Choose the correct answer. In the prokaryotic cell are missing:
   A. core
   B. ribosomes
   C. cytoplasm
77. Choose the correct answer. What organelles have a membrane structure:
   A. cell center
   B. microtubules
   C. microfilaments
   D. lysosomes  
78. Choose the correct answer. The constituent parts of a eukaryotic cell are:
   A. nucleus and cytoplasm
   B. nucleus, cytoplasm and cytolemma 
   C. organelles, cytolemma and cytoplasm
   D. nucleus, organelles and cell wall
79. Choose the correct answer. Ribosomes are located:
   A. only on EPS
   B. on EPS and in the cytoplasm
   C. on EPS, in the cytoplasm and mitochondria
   D. only in cytoplasm and mitochondria
80. Choose the correct answer. Which of the organelles are involved in protein biosynthesis:
   A. lysosomes
   B. Golgi complex
   C. cell center
   D. rough EPS
   G. microtubules
81. Choose the correct answer. What protein microtubules consist of:
   A. of protein actin
   B. of collagen protein
 + C. of tubulin protein   
   D. of protein myosin   
82. Choose the correct answer.  What is the function of lysosomes:
   A. synthesis of carbohydrates and fats
   B. participation in cell division
   C. ATP synthesis
   D. intracellular digestion
   G. protein synthesis for the cell
83. Choose the correct answer.  What function does a smooth EPS:
   A. synthesis of carbohydrates
   B. participation in cell division
   C. ATP synthesis
   D. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell
84. Choose the correct answer.  What is the function of mitochondria:
   A. synthesis of carbohydrates
   B. participation in cell division
   C. ATP synthesis
   D. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell
85. Choose the correct answer. Dictyosome is a structural unit:
   A. mitochondria
   B. plastids
   C. cell center
 + D. Golgi complex
86. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to two membrane:
 + A. mitochondria 
   B. ribosomes
   C. cell center
   D. Golgi complex
87. Choose the correct answer. Inclusions are:
   A. temporary formations of cytoplasm 
   B. permanent formation of cytoplasm
   C. non-membrane organelles
88.  Choose the correct answer. How many microtubules are included in centrioles:
   A. 34
   B. 27
   C. 68
   D. 54
89.  Choose the correct answer. What types of inclusions does adrenaline belong to: 
   A. pigmented
   B. trophic    
   C. secretory
   D. nonspecific
   G. special
90. Choose the correct answer. In the prokaryotic cell are missing:
   A. lysosomes
   B. ribosomes
   C. cytoplasm
91. Choose the correct answer. What organelles have a membrane structure:
   A. EPS
   B. cell center
   C. microtubules
   D. microfilaments
92. Choose the correct answer. The components of a prokaryotic cell are:
   A. nucleus and cytoplasm
   B. nucleoid, cytoplasm and cytolemma 
   C. organelles, cytolemma and cytoplasm
   D. nucleus, organelles and cell wall
93. Choose the correct answer. Hyaloplasma is:
   A. structureless liquid medium of the cytoplasm    
   B. fibrillar structures
   C. inclusions
94. Choose the correct answer. The components of the cytoskeleton are:
   A. system of cytoplasmic channels
   B. special purpose organelles
   C. microtubules and microfilaments
   D. the whole system of cell organelles
95. Choose the correct answer. Ribosome function:
   A. are involved in the movement of substances inside the compartments in the cell
   B. are involved in the breakdown of protein
   C. take part in protein biosynthesis    
96. Choose the correct answer. Which of the organelles deposited calcium ions:
   A. Golgi complex
   B. cell center
   C. microtubules
   D. EPS
97. Choose two correct answers. Ribosomes belong to the group:
   A. single-membrane organelles
   B. double membrane organelles
   C. inclusions
   D. non-membrane organelles
   G. temporary organelles    
98. Choose the correct answer. What function does the Golgi complex perform:
   A. participation in cell division
   B. ATP synthesis
   C. intracellular digestion
   D. protein synthesis for the cell
   G. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell
99. Choose the correct answer. What function does a smooth EPS:
   A. synthesis of fats
   B. participation in cell division
   C. ATP synthesis
   D. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell
100. Choose the correct answer. Which of the organelles are involved in protein biosynthesis:
    A. microtubules
    B. chloroplasts
    C. cell center
    D. Golgi complex
101. Choose the correct answer. What function does a rough EPS:
    A. synthesis of carbohydrates and fats
    B. participation in cell division
    C. ATP synthesis
    D. intracellular digestion
    G. protein synthesis for cell
102. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to single-membrane:
    A. ribosomes
    B. cell center
    C. Golgi complex    
    D. microtubules
103. Choose the correct answer. Thylakoids are a structural unit:
    A. Golgi complex
    B. cell center
    C. microtubules
    D. EPS
    G. plastids 
104. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to single-membrane:
    A. microtubules
    B. microfilaments
    C. lysosomes
    D. inclusions
105. Choose the correct answer. What function do the ribosomes:
    A. synthesis of carbohydrates and fats
    B. participation in cell division
    C. intracellular digestion
    D. protein synthesis for cell
106. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to two membranes:
    A. plastids 
    B. ribosomes
    C. cell center
    D. Golgi complex
107. Choose the correct answer. The nucleolus is:
   A. the site of ribosome subunit synthesis
   B. an element that performs a structural function
   C. membrane organelle
108. Choose the correct answer. Nuclear matrix is:
   A. the skeletal structure that remains after the removal of nucleic acids
   B.  structureless core contents
   C. deoxyribonucleoprotein
109. Choose the correct answer. Microtubules perform the function:
   A. cell protection
   B. synthesis of organic substances
   C. accumulation of nutrients
   D. skeletal cells
110. Choose the correct answer. Where does the formation of ribosomes occur:
   A. in EPS
   B. in the Golgi complex
   C. in the cytoplasm
   D. in the nucleoli
111. Choose the correct answer. When the spindle filaments attach to the chromosomes:
   A. in anaphase
   B. in prophase
   C. in metaphase
   D. in telophase
112. Choose the correct answer. Record the correct sequence of stages of the mitotic cycle:
   A. anaphase
   B. metaphase
   C. autosynthetic interphase
   D. prophase
   G. telophase
113. Choose the correct answer. Genetic characteristics of the metaphase period of mitosis:
   A. 2n4с 
   B. 2n2с 
   C. 4n4с
   D. 1n1с 
114. Choose the correct answer. The nucleus in the animal cell performs the functions of:
   A. storage of genetic information
   B. storage and transfer of genetic information
   C. participates in protein biosynthesis
115. Choose the correct answer. In the postmitotic (G1) period of the cell cycle occurs:
   A. division of chromosomes into daughter chromatids
   B. DNA reduplication
   C. preparation for DNA synthesis
   D. nuclei formation of daughter cells
   G. cytokinesis
116. Choose the correct answer. DNA replication occurs:
   A. in the presynthetic period
   B. in the postsynthetic period
   C. in the synthetic period
   D. in mitosis
117. Choose the correct answer. The functions of the nuclear membrane:
  A. separation of cytoplasm
  B. protein synthesis
  C. regulation of the interaction of the nucleus and cytoplasm
118. Choose two correct answers. The biological significance of mitosis is:
   A. in maintaining the constancy of the karyotype in somatic cells
   B. in creating genetic diversity
   C. in the implementation of the processes of regeneration and growth
   D. takes part in the formation of gametes
119. Choose the correct answer. Why individuals of one species will always have complete identity of the chemical composition of DNA:
   A. since DNA is part of heterotrophic cells
   B. because DNA is in the form of a helix
   C. because DNA consists of two interconnected chains
   D. as the DNA is characterized by species specificity
120. Choose the correct answer. In the process of mitosis, in contrast to meiosis, are formed:
   A. female gametes
   B. somatic cells 
   C. zygote
   D. male gametes
121. Choose the correct answer. The membrane granular EPS in its structure:
   A. has similarities with the outer nuclear membrane
   B. has similarities with cytolemma
   C. has similarity with the outer mitochondrial membrane
122. Choose the correct answer. What is the monomer of RNA:
   A. nitrogenous base
   B. deoxyribose
   C. ribose
   D. nucleotide
   G. uracil
123. Choose the correct answer. What is the average duration of mitosis:
   A. 1-2 minutes
   B. 1-2 hours
   C. 1-2 days
124. Choose the correct answer. The component of the mitotic apparatus of a eukaryotic cell is:
   A. microfilaments
   B. myosin fibers
   C. microtubules
   D. myofibrils
125. Choose the correct answer. Where in a eukaryotic cell transcription takes place:
   A. in the core
   B. in the cytoplasm
   C. in the Golgi complex
   D. on the membranes of the granular endoplasmic reticulum
   G. in lysosomes
126. Choose the correct answer. In what period of the cell cycle do chromosomes consisting of two chromatids become visible:
   A. metaphase
   B. telophase
   C. prophase
   D. anaphase
   G. interphase
127. Choose the correct answer. Why the length of the DNA molecule may vary in different periods of the cell cycle:
   A. the composition of nucleotides changes
   B. DNA spiraling occurs
   C. renaturation occurs
128. Choose the correct answer. Which of these phases completes mitosis:
   A. anaphase
   B. prophase
   C. metaphase
   D. telophase
   G. interphase
129. Choose the correct answer. The monkey liver cell contains 48 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be contained in each of its daughter cells formed as a result of mitotic divisions:
  A. 6 chromosomes
  B. 12 chromosomes
  C. 24 chromosomes
  D. 48 chromosomes
  G. 72 chromosomes 
130. Choose the correct answer. Name the phase of mitosis in which the condensation of chromatin occurs:
   A. anaphase
   B. prophase
   C. metaphase
   D. telophase
   G. interphase
131. Choose the correct answer. The number of pores in the nuclear envelope:
   A. constantly
   B. depends on the stage of the mitotic cycle
   C. depends on the functional state of the cell
132. Choose the correct answer. Preservation of the diploid set of chromosomes as a result of cell division provides:
   A. mitosis
   B. meiosis
   C. endomitosis
133. Choose the correct answer. Genetic characterization of the telophase period of mitosis:
   A. 2n4с 
   B. 2n2с 
   C. 4n4с
   D. 1n1с 
134. Choose the correct answer. Control over all the processes of cell activity is carried out:
   A. plastids
   B. ribosomes
   C. chromosomes
   D. mitochondria
135. Choose the correct answer. In the synthetic (S) period of the cell cycle occurs:  
   A. division of chromosomes into daughter chromatids
   B. DNA reduplication
   C. preparation for DNA synthesis
   D. nuclei formation of daughter cells
   G. cytokinesis
136. Choose the correct answer. Doubling of DNA-containing organelles:
   A. in the presynthetic period
   B. in the postsynthetic period
   C. in the synthetic period
   D. in mitosis
137. Choose the correct answer. The longest molecules in the cells are:
   A. cellulose molecules
   B. starch molecules
   C. DNA molecules
   D. protein molecules
138. Choose the correct answer. In the core is carried out:
   A. photosynthesis
   B. protein synthesis
   C. ATP synthesis
   D. DNA and RNA synthesis
139. Choose the correct answer. The functions of the nuclear membrane:
   A. separation of cytoplasm
   B. protein synthesis
   C. isolation of hereditary material
140. Choose the correct answer. The biological significance of mitosis is:
   A. in the formation of gametes
   B. in the implementation of the processes of regeneration and growth
   C. in creating genetic diversity
141. Choose the correct answer. In anaphase of mitosis to the poles diverge:
   A. whole chromosomes
   B. chromatids
   C. tetrads
142. Choose the correct answer. Spiraling chromosomes, centriole divergence and dissolution of the nuclear envelope occur:
   A. in metaphase
   B. in prophase
   C. in anaphase
   D. in interphase
143. Choose the correct answer. The number of pores in the nuclear envelope:
   A. constantly
   B. depends on the stage of the mitotic cycle
   C. depends on the functional state of the cell
144. Choose the correct answer. The structural parts of the core are:
   A. only the nuclear envelope
   B. only nuclear membrane and chromatin
   C. nuclear envelope, chromatin, nucleolus and nucleoplasm
145. Choose the correct answer. The cell center in the process of mitosis responds:
   A. for the biosynthesis of tubulin proteins
   B. for the spiralization of chromosomes
   C. for moving the cytoplasm
   D. for the formation of the spindle division
146. Choose the correct answer. What process ensures the preservation of a constant number of chromosomes in the cells during reproduction:
   A. meiotic division
   B. movement of cytoplasm
   C. mitotic division
   D. spermatogenesis
147. Choose the correct answer. What is a DNA monomer:
   A. nitrogenous base
   B. deoxyribose
   C. ribose
   D. nucleotide
   G. tymin
148. Choose the correct answer. Why metaphase cells of different species differ from each other:
   A. have a different number of chromosomes
   B. have a different arrangement of chromosomes
   C. have different chromosome size
149. Choose the correct answer. The order of nucleotides in the DNA molecule determines:
   A. structure of the nitrogenous base
   B. composition and amino acid sequence in the protein molecule
   C. the structure of the ribosomes
150. Choose the correct answer. How many DNA molecules are in each chromosome during prophase mitosis:
   A. 1c
   B. 2c
   C. 4c
   D. 6c
151. Choose the correct answer. In which answer is the sequence of phases of mitosis correctly indicated:
   A. metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase
   B. prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
   C. telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
   D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
152. Choose the correct answer. The human skin cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be contained in each of its daughter cells, formed as a result of two mitotic divisions:
   A. 23 chromosomes
   B. 46 chromosomes
   C. 138 chromosomes
   D. 92 chromosomes
153. Choose the correct answer. What structural components of the animal cell are included in the poles of the division spindle:
   A. mitochondria
   B. lysosomes
   C. centrioles
   D. Golgi apparatus
154. Choose the correct answer. Why metaphase cells of animals of different species differ from each other:
   A. the difference depends on the number of chromosomes
   B. the difference depends on the location of the chromosomes
   C. difference depends on chromosome size
155. Choose the correct answer. Genetic characteristics of the G1 period of the cell cycle:
   A. 2n4с 
   B. 2n2с 
   C. 4n4с
   D. 1n1с
156. Choose two correct answers. The biological significance of mitosis is:
   A. in maintaining the constancy of the karyotype in somatic cells
   B. in creating genetic diversity
   C. in the implementation of the processes of regeneration and growth
   D. takes part in the formation of gametes
157. Choose the correct answer. In 1839, cell theory was formulated:
     A. T. Schwann and M. Schleiden
     B. T. Schwann, M. Schleiden and R. Virchow
     C. R. Hooke and L.Levenguk
158. Choose the correct answer. An important addition to the cell theory that “every cell comes from a different cell,” was made in 1858:
    A. M. Schleiden
    B. G. Mendel
    C. T. Schwann
    D. R. Virchow
159. Choose the correct answer. Components of the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells:
    A. organelles and inclusions
    B. membrane and non-membrane organelles
    C. nucleus and organelles
    D. organelles, inclusions and hyaloplasm
    G. hyaloplasm, nucleus and organelles
160. Choose the correct answer. The structural proteins of the membrane perform the function:
    A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis)
    B. hormone transfer
    C. ion transport
    D. support function
    G. transfer (transport) of water
161. Choose the correct answer.   Enzymatic proteins perform the function:
    A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis)
    B. hormone transfer
    C. ion transport
    D. catalytic function
    G. transfer (transport) of water
162. Choose the correct answer.   Receptor proteins perform the function of:
    A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis)
    B. hormone transfer
    C. ion transport
    D. catalytic function
163. Choose two correct answers.   The passage of water through a semipermeable membrane without energy is called:
    A. diffusion
    B. osmosis
    C. active transport
    D. passive transport
164. Choose the correct answer.  Aquaporins proteins perform the function:
    A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis)
    B. hormone transfer
    C. ion transport
    D. transfer (transport) of water
165. Choose the correct answer. Tunnel proteins perform the function:
     A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis)
     B. hormone transfe
     C. ion transport
     D. transfer (transport) of water
166. Choose the correct answer. Water molecules enter the cell:
    A. by diffusion
    B. with transport membrane proteins
    C. by phagocytosis
    D. by osmosis
167. Choose the correct answer. Gas molecules enter the celll:
    A. by diffusion
    B. with transport membrane proteins
    C. by phagocytosis
    D. by osmosis
168. Choose the correct answer. In the prokaryotic cell is present:
     A. nucleoid, cytoplasm and cytolemma 
     B. organelles, cytolemma and cytoplasm
     C. nucleus, organelles and cell wall
169. Choose the correct answer. The compound that plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure in the cell is:
       A. protein
       B. ATP
       C. sodium chloride
       D. lipids
170. Choose the correct answer. What is the thickness of the plasmolemma (membrane):
      A. 10 nm
      B. 20 nm
      C. 30 nm
171. Choose the correct answer. Plasmolemma is:
      A. monomolecular membrane layer
      B. bimolecular membrane layer
      C. three-layer membrane
172. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the mode of transport through the membrane with the help of protein-carrier and without energy:
      A. diffusion
      B. active transport
      C. pinocytosis
      D. osmosis
173. Choose the correct answer. Name the mode of transport in which the molecules of the solute move independently through the outer plasma membrane in the direction of a lower concentration of this solute:
       A. diffusion
       B. active transport
       C. osmosis.
174. Choose the correct answer. As a decrease in the temperature of the solution affects the rate of diffusion of substances through the outer plasma membrane of the cell:
       A. reduces speed
       B. increases speed
       C. does not change the speed
175. Choose the correct answer. The capture of substances from the extracellular space by invagination of the outer cell membrane is called:
      A. endocytosis
      B. diffusion
      C. osmosis
176. Choose the correct answer. The concentration of K+ ions is greater:
      A. inside the cell
      B. extracellular environment
      C. is the same in the cell and extracellular environment
177. Choose the correct answer. The concentration of Na+ ions is greater:
      A. inside the cell
      B. extracellular environment
      C. is the same in the cell and extracellular environment
178. Choose the correct answer. The similarity of plant cells and bacteria is the presence of:
      A. plasmalemma
      B. core
      C. mitochondria
      D. vacuoles
179. Choose the correct answer.  The cell membrane of plants, in contrast to the plasma membrane consists of:
     A. nucleic acids
     B. proteins and lipids
     C. сellulose
     D. аmino аcids
180. Choose the correct answer. The functions of the nuclear membrane:
    A. the separation of the nucleus from the cytoplasm
    B. regulation of the interaction of the nucleus and cytoplasm
    C. separation of hereditary material and regulation of the interaction of the nucleus and cytoplasm
181. Choose the correct answer. Molecules of glucose and amino acids enter the cell:
     A. by diffusion
     B. using membrane transport proteins
     С. by osmosis
182. Choose the correct answer. What property of water makes it a good solvent:
     A. high heat capacity
     B. slow heating and cooling
     C. molecular polarity
183. Choose the correct answer. Animal cells combine to form tissues due to:
     A. glycocalyx
     B. proteins
     С. lipids  
184. Choose the correct answer. All prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells has:
    A. mitochondria and nucleus
    B. vacuoles and Golgi complex
    C. nuclear membrane and chloroplasts
    D. cytolemma 
185. Choose the correct answer. The internal membrane structure of prokaryotic cells is:
      A. mesosome
      B. ribosome
      C. lysosome
      D. dictyosome
186. Choose the correct answer. What substance is included in the composition of the cell wall only in bacteria:
     A. lipids
     B. glycocalix
     C. mureic acid
     D. proteins
187. Choose the correct answer. The ability of living organisms to maintain a constant concentration of substances dissolved in the cytoplasm of cells is one of the properties of living systems:
    A. homeostasis
    B. ontogeny
    С. irritability
    D. variability
188. Choose two correct answers. For asexual reproduction include:
   A. conjugation
   B. copulation
   C. genogenesis
   D. schizogony
   G. mitosis
189. Choose the correct answer. For mammals it is characteristic:
    A. heterogamy
    B. isogamy
    C. oogamia
190. Choose two correct answers. When asexual reproduction:
     A. offspring represents genetic copies of the parents
     B. there is a genetic diversity of the descendants
     C. the cellular mechanism is meiosis
     D. material is supplied mainly for stabilizing selection
191. Choose two correct answers. When asexual reproduction:
    A. offspring represents genetic copies of the parents
    B. there is a genetic diversity of the descendants
    C. the cellular mechanism is mitosis
192. Choose two correct answers. Sexual reproduction includes:
      A. mitosis
      B. schizogony
      C. parthenogenesis
      D. genogenesis
193. Choose two correct answers. Sexual reproduction includes:
      A. budding
      B. fragmentation 
      C. parthenogenesis
      D. genogenesis
194. Choose two correct answers. When parthenogenesis, the body develops:
     A. from zygote
     B. from sperm
     C. from the egg
     D. from a somatic cell
195. Choose the correct answer. Preservation of a constant number of chromosomes in the cells during vegetative reproduction is provided by:
     A. meiotic division
     B. movement of the cytoplasm
     C. mitotic division
     D. spermatogenesis
196. Choose the correct answer. The unit of reproduction of organisms is:
     A. nucleus
     B. cytoplasm
     C. cell
     D. tissue
197. Choose the correct answer. At what reproduction the daughter organism is most similar to the parent:
    A. sexual reproduction
    B. seed reproduction
    C. asexual reproduction
    D. during parthenogenesis
198. Choose the correct answer. What property of living systems provides the difference of descendants from two parents:
    A. metabolism and energy
    B. individual development
    С. reproduction
    D. variability
    G. heredity
199. Choose the correct answer. Name the form of reproduction when the formation of an outgrowth in a mother cell or organism occurs, which then separates and turns into an independent organism:
      A. budding
      B. fragmentation
      C. schizogony
      D. parthenogenesis
200. Choose the correct answer. What is the reproduction method, in which the body of a mature multicellular organism disintegrates into several parts, each of which then turns into a mature individual:
    A. budding
    B. fragmentation
    C. schizogony
    D. parthenogenesis
201. Choose the correct answer. Specify animals for which parthenogenesis is characteristic:
     A. Infusoria
     B. Flagellates
     C. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
     D. Plasmodium malaria
     G. Wasps, man
202. Choose the correct answer. Indicate animals that are characterized by schizogony:
      A. Infusoria
      B. Flagellates
      C. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
      D. Plasmodium malaria
203. Choose the correct answer. Indicate animals that are characterized by endogony:
      A. Toxoplasma gondii
      B. Wasps, man
      C. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
204. Choose the correct answer.  What is the name of the phenomenon in which male and female germ cells develop in the same organism:
      A. sexual dimorphism
      B. heterozygosity
      C. hermaphroditism
      D. gametogenesis
205. Choose the correct answer. What is the breeding method called when two haploid single-celled individuals merge into one;
      A. asexual reproduction
      B. copulation
      C. parthenogenesis
      D. schizogony
206. Choose the correct answer. Name the reproduction form in which multiple divisions of the nucleus occur without division of the cytoplasm, and then the whole cytoplasm is divided into sections, isolated around the formed nuclei:
      A. budding
      B. fragmentation
      C. schizogony
      D. parthenogenesis
207. Choose the correct answer. Name the form of reproduction, in which the division of the developing organism first occurs into several parts, each of which then develops into an independent multicellular organism:
      A. polyembryony
      B. schizogony
      C. parthenogenesis
208. Choose the correct answer. Specify animals that are characterized by conjugation as a form of reproduction:
     A. Infusoria
     B. Flagellates
     C. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
     D. Plasmodium malaria
209. Choose the correct answer. Which method of reproduction include polyembryony:
      A. asexual reproduction
      B. copulation
      C. sexual reproduction
210. Choose the correct answer. Name the method of reproduction of animals, in which a new organism arises from non-specialized diploid somatic cells of the body:
     A. asexual reproduction
     B. copulation
     C. parthenogenesis
     D. schizogony
211. Choose the correct answer. Name the form of reproduction of organisms, when, during the temporary convergence of two single-celled individuals, they exchange among themselves a part of their hereditary information:
    A. parthenogenesis
    B. copulation
    C. schizogony
    D. conjugation
212. Choose the correct answer. Name animals that often have polyembryony as a form of reproduction:
     A. Flagellates
     B. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
     C. Plasmodium malaria
     D. Wasps, man
213. Choose the correct answer. Specify organisms characterized by fragmentation as a form of reproduction:
    A. Infusoria
    B. Flagellates
    C. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
    D. Tenia solium, Annelids
214. Choose the correct answer. Name the method of reproduction of animals, which is characterized by the development of a new organism from specialized haploid cells.
    A. asexual reproduction
    B. sexual reproduction
    C. parthenogenesis
    D. schizogony
215. Choose the correct answer. Indicate animals that are characterized by copulation as a form of reproduction:
    A. Infusoria
    B. Flagellates
    C. Bees, daphnias, rock lizards
    D. Tenia solium, Annelids
216. Choose the correct answer. What method of reproduction include schizogony:
     A. asexual reproduction
     B. sexual reproduction
     C. parthenogenesis
     D. vegetative reproduction
217. Choose the correct answer. Specify organisms characterized by budding as a form of reproduction:
     A. Wasps
     B. Yeast fungi
     C. Bees, daphnias
     D. Annelids
218. Choose the correct answer. Name the form of reproduction of the organism when the daughter organism forms from an unfertilized egg:
     A. conjugation
     B. copulation
     C. fragmentation
     D. parthenogenesis
219. Choose the correct answer. Name the form of reproduction of organisms, when from the group of somatic cells of the maternal organism a daughter organism is formed which is completely similar to the maternal one:
     A. conjugation
     B. copulation
     C. vegetative propagation
     D. schizogony
     G. parthenogenesis
220. Choose the correct answer. What method of reproduction include parthenogenesis:
     A. asexual reproduction;
     B. sexual reproduction;
     C. vegetative reproduction
221. Choose the correct answer. Name the method of asexual reproduction to which the birth of a woman has several monozygous (identical) twins:
     A. budding
     B. polyembryony
     C. fragmentation
     D. parthenogenesis
222. Choose the correct answer. Name the breeding method that is the source of intraspecific variability
      A. asexual reproduction
      B. sexual reproduction
      C. vegetative reproduction
223. Choose the correct answer. What is the method of reproduction in which the newly formed daughter organism differs from the parent and from its other daughter organisms:
     A. asexual reproduction
     B. sexual reproduction
     C. vegetative reproduction
224. Choose the correct answer. In the despiralized state, the chromosomes are in the following stages:
     A. interphase
     B. profase
     C. anafazy
     D. metaphase
225. Choose the correct answer. In the despiralized state, the chromosomes are in the following stages:
     A. profase
     B. anafazy
     C. metaphase
     D. telophase
226. Choose three correct answers. The biological significance of sexual reproduction:
     A. the individual produces a large number of gametes capable of fertilization
     B. in gametes, recombination of genetic material occurs
     C. there is a wide variety of traits in descendants
     D. the range of existence of all descendants changes
     G. change the food chain of organisms
227. Choose the correct answer. Sexual reproduction is considered an aromorphosis because it:
      A. increases genetic diversity
      B. translates most genes into a homozygous state
      C. increases the proportion of heterozygous individuals
228. Choose the correct answer. Meiotic cell division provides the processes:
      A. conservation in the gametes of the diploid set of chromosomes
      B. formation of germ cells with haploid set of chromosomes
      C. the formation of cells with a different set of autosomes
229. Choose the correct answer. Meiotic cell division provides the processes:
      A. conservation in the gametes of the diploid set of chromosomes
      B. recombination of genes in gamete chromosomes
      C. the formation of cells with a different set of autosomes

IV. Ecology
230. Choose the correct answer. The method of ecology are not:     
   A. monitoring,
   B. microscopic 
   С. experimental 
   D. mathematical modeling
231. Choose the correct answer. The term ecosystem introduced in science:     
    A. Vernadsky     
    B. Sukachev    
    C. Tansley
232. Choose the correct answer. Autecology is ecology:    
    A. individuals     
    B. populations     
    С. communities     
    D. man
233. Choose the correct answer. Mandatory components of the ecosystem are:   
    A. flora and fauna    
    B. biocenosis and biotope    
    C. soil and vegetation cover
234. Choose the correct answer. Producers, consumers and distributors are included in the group:    
   A. abiotic ecosystem components   
   B. biotic components of the ecosystem    
   C. anthropogenic components of the ecosystem
235. Choose the correct answer. Mechanisms that maintain a stable state of ecosystems are called:    
   A. homeostatic    
   B. constitutional mechanisms   
   C. feedback mechanisms
236. Choose the correct answer. The set of populations functioning in a certain space of an abiotic environment is called:
    A. biocenosis
    B. biogeocenosis
    C. biotope.
237. Choose the correct answer. Elements of the environment that have a significant impact on living organisms are called:
    A. anthropogenic factors
    B. limiting factors
    C. environmental factors
    D. biotic factors
238. Choose the correct answer. Edaphic factors include:
    A. length of day and night
    B. sunlight, temperature and humidity
    C. soil composition and properties
239. Choose the correct answer. The range of tolerance between the minimum and maximum is called:
    A. limit of tolerance
    B. the norm of tolerance
    C. optimum tolerance
240. Choose the correct answer. The anthropogenic factors include:
    A. sinoikia
    B. soil composition
    C. fertilizer application
    D. parasitism
    G. competition
    H. light
241. Choose the correct answer. In the absence of limiting factors, population size:
    A. stabilizes
    B. increases exponentially
    C. experiences periodic fluctuations
    D. falls
242. Choose the correct answer. The factor, the intensity of which is most favorable for the vital activity of the organism, is called:
     A. normal reaction
     B. upper endurance limit
     C. optimal
     D. limiting
243. Choose the correct answer. The leading role in the reduction of fish stocks of the World Ocean was played by factors:
     A. climatic
     B. biotic
     C. abiotic
     D. anthropogenic
244. Establish a match: | 1) Natural 2) Urbanocenosis | | a) consumers prevail b) producers predominate c) circulation of substances is closed (carried out within the limits of the ecosystem) | d) circulation of substances broken e) self-regulation takes place v) multi-chain food chains | g) unstable in time and space h) the number of synanthropic species is high |
245. Choose the correct answer. Antagonistic symbiosis is:
    A. antibiosis
    B. sinoikia
    C. commensalism
    D. parasitism
    G. mutualism
246. Choose two correct answers. What interspecific biotic relationships have medical significance:
    A. Competition
    B. parasitism
    C. mutualism
    D. antibiosis
247. Choose the correct answer. The form of interrelations of organisms, in which one species of organisms lives at the expense of another, eating it, is called:
    A. competition
    B. parasitism
    C. predation
    D. symbiosis
248. Choose the correct answer. Mutually beneficial, but not obligatory relationships between different types of organisms are called:
    A. commensalism
    B. mutualism
    C. parasitism
    D. anabiosis
249. Choose the correct answer. Relationships in which one of the partners benefits, and the other they are indifferent, are called:
     A. anabiosis
     B. mutualism
     C. commensalism
     D. symbiosis
     G. competition
250. Choose the correct answer. Man refers:
     A. evribionts
     B. stenobionts
     C. stenotherms
251. Choose the correct answer. Climate - geographical ecological types of people are formed at the level of:
     A. ontogenetic
     B. population
     C. ethnic
     D. racial
252. Choose the correct answer. Climate - geographical ecological types of people are formed as a result of:
    A. acclimatization
    B. non-specific adaptation
    C. specific adaptation
    D. urgent adaptation
253. Choose four correct answers. Mountain adaptive ecological type of person is characterized by:
    A. asthenic physique
    B. hypersthenic physique
    C. increase in the size of the chest
    D. a high percentage of adipose tissue
    G. increased pulmonary ventilation
    H. high blood levels of red blood cells and hemoglobin
254. Choose four the correct answers. The main environmental factors contributing to the formation of the Arctic adaptive type of person:
    A. shine
    B. temperature
    C. humidity
    D. oxygen content in the air
    G. the nature of the food
255. Choose the correct answer. The term "ecology" was introduced in 1868:
    A. Linnaeus
    B. Haeckel
    C. Lamarck
    D. Sukachev
256. Choose the correct answer. Ecosystems that have changed under the influence of human economic activity are called:
    A. natural
    B. modified
    C. transformed
257. Choose the correct answer. Air, water and solid habitats are included in the group:
     A. abiotic ecosystem components,
     B. biotic ecosystem components,
     C. anthropogenic components of the ecosystem.
258. Choose the correct answer. The ecology of populations is studied by:
     A. autoecology
     B. synecology
     C. geoecology
     D. demecology
259. Choose the correct answer. The population is:
    A. aggregate of uneven-aged individuals, united by common conditions of existence
    B. a set of uneven-age individuals of the same species, exchanging genetic information, united by the general conditions of existence necessary to maintain their numbers for a long time;
    C. set of individuals that make up the population of a particular ecosystem
260. Choose the correct answer. What level of organization of the living is not investigated by ecology:
    A. biogeocenotic
    B. organ
    C. biosphere
    D. ontogenetic
    G. population-specific
261. Choose the correct answer. The combination of various human influences on inanimate and living nature is called:
    A. the limiting factors
    B. environmental factors
    C. anthropogenic factors
262. Choose the correct answer. Ecological factors, the most distant from their optimal values ​​and limiting the vital activity of the organism or ecosystem, are called:
    A. limiting factors
    B. environmental factors
    C. anthropogenic factors
263. Choose the correct answer. The law of tolerance was discovered:
    A. Sukachev
    B. Tansley
    C. Shelford
264. Choose the correct answer. What is the limiting factor in the biocenosis:
     A. water
     B. light
     C. food
     G. wind
265. Choose the correct answer. Organisms with limited adaptive capabilities are called:
     A. eurybionts
     B. stenobionts
     C. stenotherms
     D. antibionts
266. Choose the correct answer. The main signal of the occurrence of changes in the environment is:
     A. change in air temperature
     B. precipitation
     C. change in day length
     D. snowfall
267. Choose the correct answer. The effect of the anthropogenic factor on wildlife is not natural, therefore in organisms:
     A. formed to him various adaptations
     B. adaptations were not formed to it
     C. developed defensive reactions to him
     D. most mutations are preserved by natural selection.
268. Choose two correct answers. Anthropogenic ecosystems include:
     A. phytocenosis
     B. biocenosis
     C. agrocenosis
     D. urbanocenosis
     G. zoocenosis
269. Establish a match: | 1) Agrocenosis 2) Natural | | a) consumers prevail b) producers predominate c) circulation of substances is closed (carried out within the limits of the ecosystem) | d) circulation of substances broken e) self-regulation takes place v) multi-chain food chains | g) unstable in time and space h) the number of synanthropic species is high |
270. Choose the correct answer. The form of the relationship between lice and man is:
     A. apartment
     B. swindles
     C. mutualism
     D. parasitism
271. Choose the correct answer. How much of the visible light is used by plants for photosynthesis:
     A. green
     B. red and blue
     C. yellow and green
     D. purple and orange
272. Choose the correct answer. The form of the relationship between the black and red cockroaches is called:
     A. apartment
     B. predation
     C. competition
     D. parasitism
273. Choose the correct answer. A form of relationship in which organisms fight for food and other living conditions is called:
    A. anabiosis
    B. mutualism
    C. predation
    D. symbiosis
    G. competition
274. Choose the correct answer. Interspecific relationships in which one species lives at the expense of another, settling inside or on the body surface of an organism, are called:
    A. competition
    B. parasitism
    C. predation
275. Choose the correct answer. The relationship between hermit crab and anemone is an example:
    A. parasitism
    B. competition
    C. symbiosis
    D. predation
276. Choose the correct answer. Adaptive ecological types of people are determined by:
     A. race
     B. ethnic background
     C. genetically determined individual characteristics
277. Choose three correct answers. Arctic adaptive ecological type of person is characterized by:
     A. high level of energy metabolism
     B. low energy metabolism 
     C. a physique
     D. muscular body type
     G. high levels of hemoglobin in the blood
278. Choose three correct answers. Tropical adaptive ecological type of person is characterized by:
    A. hypersthenic body type,
    B. asthenic physique
    C. a decrease in the circumference of the chest
    D. increase in the size of the chest
    G. high blood cholesterol
    H. low in blood cholesterol
279. Choose the correct answer. The response of the body to a certain length of day is called:
    A. biological clock
    B. photoperiodism
    C. fitness
    D. heredity
280. Choose the correct answer. The term "biosphere" introduced into science:
    A. Vernadsky
    B. Suess
    C. Lamarck
281. Choose the correct answer. Biosphere is the result of interaction:
    A. living and nonliving matter
    B. living matter and economic activities of people
    C. inanimate matter and cosmic radiation
282. Choose the correct answer. The founder of modern ideas about the biosphere is:
    A. Vernadsky
    B. Suess
    C. Lamarck
283. Choose the correct answer. The upper boundary of the biosphere is at altitude:
    A. 15-20 km
    B. 25-30 km
    C. 40-50 km
284. Choose the correct answer. The lower boundary of the biosphere in the lithosphere is determined by:
    A. the presence of water
    B. conditions of aeration
    C. high fever
285. Choose the correct answer. The stability of the biosphere as a global ecosystem is determined by:
     A. competition between organisms
     B. the diversity of its species composition
     C. population waves
     D. laws of heredity and variability of organisms
286. Choose two correct answers. Biocenosis develops as a result of:
     A. joint evolution of species
     B. independent evolution of species
     C. successions
287. Choose the correct answer. Ecological balance is:
    A. the state of the ecosystem, in which the plant biomass is equal to the animal biomass
    B. the state of the ecosystem, in which the rate of flow of autotrophic processes is equal to the rate of flow of heterotrophic processes
    C. state of the ecosystem, in which the composition and productivity of the biotic part correspond to abiotic conditions
288. Choose two correct answers. In the biocenosis factors interact:
    A. soil
    B. climatic
    C. interspecific
    D. intraspecific
289. Choose the correct answer. What is the limiting factor in the biocenosis:
    A. water
    B. light
    C. food
    D. wind
290. Choose the correct answer. The reasons for changing one biogeocenosis to another are:
    A. seasonal changes in nature
    B. changing weather conditions
    C. fluctuations in the number of populations of one species
    D. changes in habitat as a result of vital activity of organisms
291. Choose the correct answer. Organisms that create organic matter from inorganic are called:
    A. producers
    B. consumers
    C. reducers
292. Choose the correct answer. Organisms that use energy released during chemical reactions are called:
    A. reducers
    B. photoautotrophs
    C. chemoautotrophs
293. Choose the correct answer. The mineralization of organic residues in the biosphere is due to:
     A. reducers
     B. phagotrophs
     C. photoautotropham
294. Choose the correct answer. Reduction in ecosystems are not:
     A. penicillus mushroom
     B. cyanobacteria
     C. acetic acid bacteria
     D. mushroom-mukor
     G. lactic acid bacteria
295. Choose the correct answer. Second-order consumers eat:
    A. plants
    B. algae
    C. carnivores
    D. predators
296. Choose the correct answer. Nodule bacteria living on the roots of leguminous plants perform the function in the biosphere:
    A. gas
    B. concentration
    C. redox
    D. biogeochemical
297. Choose the correct answer. The highest concentration of living matter is observed:
    A. in the upper atmosphere
    B. in the depths of the oceans
    C. in the lithosphere
    D. at the boundaries of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere
298. Choose the correct answer. The transfer of food energy in the processes of nutrition from its source through a successive series of animal organisms is called:
     A. trophic network
     B. trophic chain
     C. trophic level
299. Choose the correct answer. The ecological pyramid rule:
     A. The food chain includes 4-5 links
     B. the biomass of each subsequent link of the food chain is less than the previous one
     C. the biomass of each subsequent link of the food chain is greater than the previous one
     D. replaces the less sustainable ecosystem comes more sustainable
300. Choose the correct answer. Significant changes in the habitat by organisms in the process of their vital activity are the reason:
     A. extinction species
     B. fluctuations in population numbers
     C. ecosystem changes
301. Choose the correct answer. In the oceans, with the depth of biomass decreases, as there:
     A. little oxygen
     B. low temperature
     C. little light
     D. no soil
302. Choose the correct answer. The long-term effects of pollution are:
      A. reduction of human reproductive function,
      B. acute radiation sickness
      C. the formation of non-hereditary malformations
303. Choose the correct answer. The long-term effects of pollution are:
      A. the formation of hereditary malformations
      B. acute radiation sickness
      C. the formation of non-hereditary malformations
304. Choose the correct answer. The long-term effects of pollution are:
      A. decrease in life expectancy
      B. acute radiation sickness
      C. carcinogenesis
305. Choose the correct answer. "Space" the role of plants in the world is that they:
     A. accumulate solar energy
     B. absorb minerals from the environment
     C. absorbs carbon dioxide from the environment
     D. emit oxygen
306. Choose the correct answer. Pollution of the atmosphere with sulfur and nitrogen oxides contributes to:
     A. destruction of the ozone layer
     B. salinization of the oceans
     C. acid rain
307. Choose the correct answer. Pollution of the atmosphere with sulfur and nitrogen oxides contributes to:
     A. destruction of the structure of the arable layer
     B. leaching nutrients from the soil
     C. acid rain
308. Choose the correct answer. V.I. Vernadsky first used the term "biosphere" in:
     A. 1905
     B. 1868
     C. 1914
     D. 1926
309. Choose the correct answer. According to the teachings of V.I. Vernadsky's highest form of development of matter on Earth is:
     A. life
     B. mind
     C. bio-substance
310. Choose the correct answer. The age of the biosphere is:
     A. 1 billion years
     B. 3 billion years
     C. 4 billion years
     D. 5 billion years
311. Choose the correct answer. In the lithosphere, living organisms are found at depth:
     A. 3 km
     B. 8 km
     C. 12 km
312. Choose the correct answer. In the biosphere:
     A. plant biomass is many times greater than animal biomass
     B. The biomass of animals is many times the biomass of plants
     C. plant biomass equals animal biomass
313. Choose the correct answer. Balance in the biosphere contributes to:
     A. the creation of new varieties of plants and animal breeds
     B. the introduction of new species into the ecosystem
     C. the destruction of parasites and predators
     D. introduction of non-waste technologies into production
314. Choose the correct answer. Due to the function of living substance, calcium accumulated in the earth's crust:
     A. gas
     B. concentration
     C. reproductive
     D. energy
315. Choose the correct answer. A large role in the transformation of matter and energy belongs to:
     A. the atmosphere
     B. water
     C. living matter
     D. soil
316. Choose the correct answer. The basis of dynamic equilibrium and sustainability of the biosphere are:
     A. the evolution of living organisms
     B. cycles of matter and energy
     C. stability of the external borders of the biosphere
317. Choose the correct answer. With each successive energy transfer in the food chain dissipates:
     A. 10-20% of potential energy
     B. 40-50% of potential energy
     C. 80-90% of potential energy
318. Choose the correct answer. The term "biogeocenosis" was introduced in science in 1940 years:
     A. Vernadsky
     B. Sukachev
     C. Tansley
319. Choose the correct answer. Biogeocenosis as an elementary ecological system:
     A. open
     B. closed
     D. not constant in species composition and territory
320. Choose the correct answer. Biogeocenosis as an elementary ecological system:
     A. constant by species composition and territory
     B. closed
     E. unstable in time
321. Choose the correct answer. Biogeocenosis as an elementary ecological system:
     A. closed 
     B. unstable in time
     D. self-regulating
322. Choose the correct answer. Biogeocenosis as an elementary ecological system:
     A. closed 
     B. unstable in time
     C. steady in time
323. Choose the correct answer. The stability of natural biogeocenoses is due to:
     A. plant productivity
     B. large species diversity
     C. activity of decomposers
     D. abiotic factors
324. Choose the correct answer. Biological resistance to environmental conditions in populations compared with individuals:
     A. higher
     B. lower
     C. is the same
325. Choose the correct answer. Organisms that use sunlight as an energy source are called:
     A. reducers
     B. photo autotrophies
     C. chemoautotrophs
326. Choose the correct answer. Organic matter dead residues feed on:
     A. reducers
     B. saprophytes
     C. phagotrophs
327. Choose the correct answer. What limits the length of the food chain:
     A. the amount of food
     B. loss of energy at every trophic level
     C. the rate of accumulation of organic matter
     D. quality of food
328. Choose the correct answer. Ecological successions are:
     A. successive changes of populations in the ecosystem
     B. successive changes of ecosystems with a gradual directional change of environmental conditions
     C. changing environmental conditions
329. Choose the correct answer. The ecosystem producers include:
     A. gymnosperms
     B. herbivores
     C. saprophytic bacteria
     D. mushrooms
330. Choose the correct answer. The biomass of land surface consumers, like the biomass of soil resources, from the poles to the equator:
     A. does not change
     B. increases
     C. decreases
     D. ranges
331. Choose the correct answer. The pattern associated with a decrease in energy at each subsequent trophic level is called:
     A. trophic network
     B. trophic pyramid
     C. ecological pyramid
332. Choose the correct answer. One of the main causes of depletion of the ozone layer in the atmosphere is:
     A. accumulation of freon
     B. increase the oxygen content
     C. increase in carbon dioxide content
333. Choose the correct answer. The increase in the incidence of congenital malformations in human populations is due to environmental pollution:
      A. carbon dioxide
      B. mutagens
      C. allergens
334. Choose the correct answer. The increase in the incidence of congenital malformations in human populations is due to environmental pollution:
      A. carcinogens
      B. allergens
      C. benzopyrene
335. Choose the correct answer. The increase in the incidence of congenital malformations in human populations is due to environmental pollution:
     A. teratogens
     B. carbon dioxide
     C. benzopyrene
336. Choose the correct answer. The development of industry, transport, agriculture, taking into account environmental laws - a necessary condition:
    A. the evolution of the organic world along the path of aromorphosis
    B. self-regulation of numbers in populations
    C. sustainability of the biosphere
337. Choose the correct answer. The development of industry, transport, agriculture, taking into account environmental laws - a necessary condition:
     A. biocenosis changes
     B. sustainability of the biosphere
     C. self-regulation of numbers in populations
338. Choose the correct answer. The expansion of the ozone holes leads to:
    A. greenhouse effect, the appearance of fogs
    B. increased ultraviolet radiation and mutagenic effect
    C. lowering the temperature and increasing the humidity of the air
339. Choose the correct answer. The expansion of the ozone holes leads to:
    A. increased ultraviolet radiation and mutagenic effect
    B. lowering the temperature and increasing the humidity of the air
    C.  reduce the intensity of photosynthesis and reduce the transparency of the atmosphere

III. Medical Parasitology
340. Choose the correct answer. Who is the specific carrier of Leishmania:
     A. fly 
     B. mosquitoes from the genus Anopheles 
     C. triatomid bugs
     D. mosquitoes from the genus Phlebotomus
341. Choose the correct answer. Lambliosis is diagnosed when it detects:
     A. in a smear of feces 8 nuclear cysts
     B. in a smear of feces 4 nuclear cysts
     C. vegetative forms of the parasite in the contents of the duodenum
342. Choose the correct answer. For which parasitic Protozoa intracellular localization is possible in the human body:
     A. Tripanosoma sp.
     В. Leishmania sp.
     C. Lamblia sp.
     D. Balantidium coli
343. Choose the correct answer. For which parasitic Protozoa intracellular localization is possible in the human body:
     А. Plasmodium sp.
     B. Tripanosoma sp.
     C. Lamblia sp.
     D. Entamoeba histolytica
344. Choose the correct answer. For which parasitic Protozoa intracellular localization is possible in the human body:
     А. Lamblia intestinalis and Balantidium coli
     B. Leischmania tropica minor and Toxoplasma gondii
     C. Trichomonas hominis and Entamoeba histolytica
345. Choose the correct answer. What class representatives have a kinetosome and kinetoplast:
     А. Flagellata
     B. Sarcodina
     C. Sporozoa
     D. Infusoria
346. Choose the correct answer. Where in the body is localized Leischmania tropica minor:
     A. liver
     B. in the blood
     C. in the liquor
     D. in the spleen
     G. in the skin
347. Choose the correct answer. Conjugation as a method of reproduction is observed in representatives of the class:
     A. Flagellata
     B. Sarcodina
     C. Sporozoa
     D. Infusoria
348. Choose the correct answer. What is the vital form of Leishmania when it is localized in the carrier:
     A. leptomonadic
     B. trypanosomal
     C. metacyclic
     D. leishmanial
349. Choose the correct answer. What is the vital form of Leishmania when it is localized in the human body:
     A. leptomonadic
     B. trypanosomal
     C. metacyclic
     D. leishmanial
350. Choose the correct answer. When 4 nuclear cysts are detected in human feces, a diagnosis is made:
     A. Lambliosis
     B. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 
     C. Balantidiasis
     D. Amebiasis
351. Choose the correct answer. Which core of the ciliates controls reproduction:
     A. macronucleus
     B. micronucleus
     C. both cores
352. Choose the correct answer. What is the core of the ciliates controls metabolism:
     A. macronucleus
     B. micronucleus
     C. both cores
353. Choose the correct answer. The host, in which the parasite is in the larval stage and reproduces asexually, is called:
     A. Reservoir
     B. Intermediate
     С. Definitive
354. Choose the correct answer. The host, in which the parasite is in the mature stage and reproduces sexually, is called:
     A. Reservoir
     B. Intermediate
     С. Definitive
355. Choose the correct answer. Sporozoa class includes:
    А. Lamblia intestinalis
    B. Leischmania tropica major
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Balantidium coli
356. Choose the correct answer. Sporozoa class includes:
    А. Lamblia intestinalis
    B. Leischmania tropica minor
    C. Balantidium coli
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
357. Choose the correct answer. The definitive host in the development cycle of Plasmodium malariae:
     A. mosquito from the genus Anoféles
     B. rats
     C. man
     D. representatives of the cat family
358. Choose the correct answer. Intermediate host in the development cycle of Plasmodium malariae:
     A. mosquito from the genus Anoféles
     B. rats
     C. man
     D. representatives of the cat family
359. Choose the correct answer. Diseases, a reservoir of pathogens which can be both animals and humans, are called:
     A. anthroponoses
     B. zoonosis
     C. anthropozoonosis
360. Choose the correct answer. Diseases whose reservoir of pathogens can only be animals are called:
     A. anthroponoses
     B. zoonosis
     C. anthropozoonosis
361. Choose the correct answer. Diseases, a reservoir of pathogens of which can only be a person, are called:
     A. anthroponoses
     B. zoonosis
     C. anthropozoonosis
362. Choose the correct answer. In the large intestine is localized:
    А. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Leischmania tropica major
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Balantidium coli
363. Choose the correct answer. In the large intestine is localized:
    А. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Leischmania tropica major
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Entamoeba histolytica
364. Choose the correct answer. Among the representatives of which class of the simplest kingdoms are colonial forms:
    А. Flagellata
    B. Sarcodina
    C. Sporozoa
    D. Infusoria
365. Choose the correct answer. Where Plasmodium malariae are parasitic in humans body:
     A. in the epithelial cells
     B. in leukocytes
     C. in red blood cells
     D. in intestinal cells
366. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle never forms cysts:
    A. Lamblia intestinalis
    B. Plasmodium malariae
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Balantidium coli
367. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle never forms cysts:
    A. Leischmania tropica major
    B. Lamblia intestinalis
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Balantidium coli
368. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle never forms cysts:
    A. Leischmania tropica major and Balantidium coli
    B. Lamblia intestinalis and Entamoeba histolytica
    C. Plasmodium malariae and Leischmania tropica minor
369. Choose the correct answer. A transmissive route of infection is characteristic of:
    A. Lamblia intestinalis
    B. Plasmodium malariae
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Balantidium coli
370. Choose the correct answer. A transmissive route of infection is characteristic of:
    A. Leischmania tropica major and Balantidium coli
    B. Lamblia intestinalis and Entamoeba histolytica
    C. Plasmodium malariae and Leischmania tropica minor
371. Choose the correct answer. A transmissive route of infection is characteristic of:
    A. Leischmania tropica major
    B. Lamblia intestinalis
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Balantidium coli
372. Choose the correct answer. Fecal-oral way you can get:
     A. Lambliosis
     B. Leishmaniasis
     C. Trypanosomiasis
     D. Malaria
373. Choose the correct answer. Fecal-oral way you can get:
     A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis 
     B. Balantidiasis
     C. Malaria
374. Choose the correct answer. Fecal-oral way you can get:
     A. Visceral leishmaniasis 
     B. Amebiasis
     C. Malaria
375. Choose the correct answer. In the case of Plasmodium malariae, the life cycle stage invasive for humans is called:
     A. merozoite
     B. sporozoite
     С. trophozoite
376. Choose the correct answer. Microscopy of human blood can be diagnosed:
     A. Lambliosis
     B. Malaria
     С. Amebiasis
     В. Balantidias
377. Choose the correct answer. Microscopy of human blood can be diagnosed:
     A. Lambliosis
     B. Trypanosomiasis
     С. Amebiasis
     D. Balantidias
378. Choose the correct answer. In the duodenum is localized:
    A. Leischmania tropica major
    B. Lamblia intestinalis
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Balantidium coli 
379. Choose the correct answer. Natural focal disease:
     A. Amebiasis
     B. Balantidiasis
     C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
     D. Trichomoniasis
380. Choose the correct answer. Natural focal disease:
     A. Lambliosis
     B. Balantidiasis
     C. Plasmodium malariae
     D. Urogenital trichomoniasis
381. Choose the correct answer. The diagnosis of malaria is determined by microscopy:
     A. blood
     B. bone marrow
     С. сerebrospinal fluid
382. Choose the correct answer. Through damaged skin (contact) you can get:
     A. Amebiasis
     B. Balantidiasis
     C. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
     D. Toxoplasmosis
383. Choose the correct answer. The definitive host in the Toxoplasma development cycle is:
     A. man
     B. dogs
     C. rodents
     D. representatives of the cat family
384. Choose the correct answer. Entamoeba histolytica can be infected by:
     A. airborne
     B. sexually
     C. transmissive
     D. fecal-oral
385. Choose the correct answer. In the bile ducts of the liver is localized:
    A. Trichomonas coli
    B. Lamblia intestinalis
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Balantidium coli 
386. Choose the correct answer. Who is the specific carrier of Plasmodium sp.:
     A. fly 
     B. mosquitoes from the genus Anopheles 
     C. triatomid bugs
     D. mosquitoes from the genus Phlebotomus
387. Choose the correct answer. Sarcodina class includes:    
    А. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Leischmania tropica major
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Entamoeba histolytica
388. Choose the correct answer. The specific carrier of African trypanosomiasis are representatives of the genus: 
    А. Anopheles
    B. Flebotomus
    C. Glossinia
    D. Triatoma
389. Choose the correct answer. What is the simplest suction disc:
    А. Lamblia intestinalis
    B. Leischmania donovani
    C. Plasmodium ovale
    D. Balantidium coli
    H. Toxoplasma gondii
390. Choose the correct answer. Which of the following representatives have flagella:
     A. Lamblia intestinalis
     B. Toxoplasma gondii
     С. Balantidium coli
     D. Plasmodium ovale
391. Choose the correct answer. Cilia are the representatives of the class:
    А. Flagellata
    B. Sarcodina
    C. Sporozoa
    D. Infusoria
392. Choose the correct answer. Cutaneous leishmaniasis distributes a specific carrier:
     A. fly 
     B. mosquitoes from the genus Anopheles 
     C. triatomid bugs
     D. mosquitoes from the genus Phlebotomus
393. Choose the correct answer. Balantidium coli can be infected by:
     A. airborne
     B. sexually
     C. transmissive
     D. fecal-oral
394. Choose the correct answer. Trichomonas vaginalis can be infected by:
     A. airborne
     B. sexually
     C. transmissive
     D. fecal-oral
395. Choose the correct answer. Microscopic examination of feces can make a diagnosis:
     A. Amebiasis
     B. Malaria
     C. Leishmaniasis
     D. Toxoplasmosis
396. Choose the correct answer. Microscopic examination of feces can make a diagnosis:
     A. Trichomoniasis
     B. Balantidias
     D. Toxoplasmosis
     C. Trypanosomiasis
397. Choose the correct answer. Natural focal transmissive diseases have:
     A. mechanical transporter
     B. blood-sucking carrier
     C. pin transmission path
398. Choose the correct answer. Intracellular parasite is:
    А. Leischmania tropica minor
    B. Lamblia intestinalis
    C. Balantidium coli
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
399. Choose the correct answer. Name the parasite penetrating the placental barrier and causing the development of deformities in the fetus is:
    А. Leischmania tropica major
    B. Lamblia intestinalis
    C. Balantidium coli
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
400. Choose the correct answer. Is not a natural focal disease:
     A. Amebiasis
     B. Malaria
     С. Leishmaniasis
     D. Toxoplasmosis
401. Choose the correct answer. Flagellata class includes:    
    А. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Leischmania tropica major
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Entamoeba histolytica
402. Choose the correct answer. Flagellata class includes:    
    А. Toxoplasma gondii
    B. Balantidium coli
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Lamblia intestinalis
403. Choose the correct answer. The stage of the life cycle of the Toxoplasma gondii invasive for humans is called:
     A. eggs
     B. cysts
     C. sporozoite
404. Choose the correct answer. The stage of the life cycle of the Plasmodium malariae invasive for humans is called:
     A. eggs
     B. cysts
     C. sporozoite    
405. Choose the correct answer. Human lungs are localized:
    А. Schistosoma haematobium
    B. Paragonimus westermani
    C. Fasciola hepatica
406. Choose the correct answer. Through poorly heat-treated fish you can become infected:
     A. Echinococcosis
     B. Diphyllobothriasis
     C. Fascioliasis
407. Choose the correct answer. If you do not follow the rules of personal hygiene, you can become infected:
     A. Opisthorchosis
     B. Diphyllobothriasis
     C. Fascioliasis
408. Choose the correct answer. Through poorly heat-treated fish you can become infected:
     A. Echinococcosis
     B. Opisthorchosis
     C. Fascioliasis
409. Choose the correct answer. Cestoda class includes:   
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Paragonimus westermani
    C. Echinococcus granulosus
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
410. Choose the correct answer. Trematoda class includes:   
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Echinococcus granulosus
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
411. Choose the correct answer. The invasive stage of the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica for humans is called:
     A. eggs
     B. miracidia
     C. cercarium
     D. adolescary
412. Choose the correct answer. Trematoda class includes:   
    А. Paragonimus westermani
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Echinococcus granulosus
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
413. Choose the correct answer. Trematoda class includes:   
    А. Taeniarhynchus saginatus 
    B. Tenia solium
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
414. Choose the correct answer. Trematoda class includes:   
    А. Taeniarhynchus saginatus and Taenia solium
    B. Echinococcus granulosus and Diphyllobothrium latum
    C. Schistosoma haematobium and Opisthorchis felineus
415. Choose the correct answer. Through poorly heat-treated meat infection is possible:
     A. Diphyllobothriasis
     B. Taeniasis
     C. Urinary schistosomiasis
416. Choose the correct answer. Through poorly heat-treated fish you can become infected:
     A. Echinococcosis
     B. Diphyllobothriasis
     C. Fascioliasis
417. Choose the correct answer. The stage of the life cycle of the Opisthorchis felineus invasive for humans is called:
     A. eggs
     B. miracidia
     C. cercarium
     D. adolescary
418. Choose the correct answer. The  invasive stage of the life cycle of the Diphyllobothrium latum for humans is called:
     A. eggs
     B. miracidia
     C. cercarium
     D. adolescary
419. Choose the correct answer. In the blood vessels of the pelvic organs of a person are localized and parasitic:
      A. schistosomes
      B. miracidies
      C. cercaries
      D. adolescary
420. Choose the correct answer. In the human liver are localized:
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
421. Choose the correct answer. In the human liver are localized:
    А. Echinococcus granulosus
    B. Taeniarhynchus saginatus 
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
422. Choose the correct answer. The intermediate host of the Fasciola hepatica is:
     A. cattle
     B. small pond snail
     C. human
     D. dog
423. Choose the correct answer. The organs of fixation of the Diphyllobothrium latum are:
     A. two suckers
     B. four suckers
     C. four suckers and hooks
     D. suction gap
424. Choose the correct answer. The organs of fixation of the Fasciola hepatica are:
     A. two suckers
     B. four suckers
     C. four suckers and hooks
     D. suction gap
425. Choose the correct answer. The organs of fixation of the Taeniarhynchus saginatus are:
     A. two suckers
     B. four suckers
     C. four suckers and hooks
     D. suction gap
426. Choose the correct answer. The organs of fixation of the Taenia solium are:
     A. two suckers
     B. four suckers
     C. four suckers and hooks
     D. suction gap 
427. Choose the correct answer. The intermediate host of the Taeniarhynchus saginatus is:
     A. cattle
     B. small pond snail
     C. human
     D. dog
428. Choose the correct answer. The invasive stage of life cycle of the Taeniarhynchus saginatus for humans is called:
     A. egg
     B. oncosphere
     C. finn type cysticercus
     D. finn type echinococcus
429. Choose the correct answer. The invasive stage of the life cycle of an Echinococcus granulosus for humans is called:
     A. egg
     B. oncosphere
     C. finn type cysticercus
     D. finn type echinococcus
430. Choose the correct answer. Type Plathelminthes have a body cavity:
     A. primary
     B. secondary
     C. cavity is absent
431. Choose the correct answer.The definitive host of an Echinococcus granulosus is:
     A. cattle
     B. cat
     C. human
     D. dog
432. Choose the correct answer. The definitive host of the Taeniarhynchus saginatus is:
     A. cattle
     B. cat
     C. human
     D. dog
433. Choose the correct answer. Missing from Cestoda class:
     A. organs of fixation
     B. nervous system
     С. intermediate host
     D. digestive system
     G. reproductive system
434. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the species Plathelminthes whose reproduction occurs in the larval and adult stages of development: 
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
435. Choose the correct answer. Аll representatives of the type Plathelminthes are absent:
     A. digestive system
     B. respiratory system
     С. excretory system
     D. nervous system
     G. reproductive system
436. Choose the correct answer. What type of digestion is characteristic for a class of Trematoda:
     A. only abdominal
     B. only intracellular
     С. cavity and intracellula
437. Choose the correct answer. At what stage of development in Taeniarhynchus saginatus 3 pairs of hooks are formed:
     A. finns
     B. larvae
     С. marita
438. Choose the correct answer. Taenia solium is called “armed” because it has:
     A. suction gap
     B. suction discs
     C. hooks
     D. spines
439. Choose the correct answer. As the organism is called, in the body of which the larvae of the parasitic worm develop:
     A. the definitive host
     B. intermediate host
     C. temporary owner
     D. permanent owner
440. Choose the correct answer. What is not typical for representatives of the class Cestoda:
     A. huge fertility
     B. presence of fixation organs
     C. sexual dimorphism
     D. the presence of the excretory system
441. Choose the correct answer. Through garden greens, poured with pond water, you can get:
     A. Fascioliasis
     C. Taeniasis
     D. Urinary schistosomiasis
442. Choose the correct answer. In the Fasciola hepatica of the egg, a larva comes out of the egg, called:
     A. miracidia
     B. sporocysts
     C. redia
     D. cercarium 
443. Choose the correct answer. The invasive stage of the life cycle of an Echinococcus granulosus for humans is called:
     A. egg
     B. oncosphere
     C. finn type cysticercus
     D. finn type echinococcus
444. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle of an echinococcus a stage is formed in the human body:
     A. eggs
     B. oncospheres
     C. finn type cysticercus
     D. finn type echinococcus
445. Choose the correct answer. Diseases caused by representatives of the class Cestoda is called:
     A. trematodose
     B. cestodiasis
     C. nematodoses
446. Choose the correct answer. The digestive system is absent in:
     A. Schistosoma haematobium 
     B. Opisthorchis felineus
     C. Taenia solium
447. Choose the correct answer. A person can serve as both the definitive and intermediate host for:
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
448. Choose the correct answer. Fish can serve as an intermediate host for:
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum
449. Choose the correct answer. Fish can serve as an intermediate host for:
    А. Fasciola hepatica
    B. Taeniarhynchus saginatus 
    C. Schistosoma haematobium 
    D. Opisthorchis felineus
450. Choose the correct answer. The type Plathelminthes parenchyma develops from:
     A. ectoderm
     B. mesoderm
     C. endoderm
451. Choose the correct answer. Name the organ of man and other predatory animals, in which the adult form of the Opisthorchis felineus parasitizes is:
     A. stomach
     B. skeletal muscle
     C. liver
     D. small intestine
     G. large intestine
452. Choose the correct answer. Name the organ of man and other predatory animals, in which the adult form of the Diphyllobothrium latum parasitizes:
     A. stomach
     B. skeletal muscle
     C. liver
     D. small intestine
     G. large intestine
453. Choose the correct answer. What are the human bodies, in which the parasite adult forms of Taeniarhynchus saginatus:
     A. stomach
     B. skeletal muscle
     C. liver
     D. small intestine
     G. large intestine
454. Choose the correct answer. What food product may contain larvae of the Diphyllobothrium latum:
     A. beef
     B. milk
     C. a fish
     D. vegetables
455. Choose the correct answer. How many segments contains Echinococcus strobilus:
     A. 3-4
     B. 90-100
     C. 500-1000
456. Choose the correct answer. Fecal-oral way you can get:
     A. Diphyllobothriasis
     B. Taeniasis
     C. Urinary schistosomiasis
457. Choose the correct answer. Which of the following is not typical for members of the Plathelminthes type:
     A. the body is flattened in the dorso-ventral direction
     B. bilateral symmetry of the body
     C. the presence of the circulatory system
     D. body cavity is absent
458. Choose the correct answer. How are metabolic products derived from the body from the representatives of the class Trematoda:
     A. through the surface of the body
     B. by mouth
     С. through the anus
459. Choose the correct answer. What food product may contain larvae of the Paragonimus westermani:
     A. beef
     B. milk
     C. crabs and other crustaceans
     D. vegetables
460. Choose the correct answer. The absence of the digestive system in representatives of the class Cestoda is explained by the result:
     A. aromorphosis
     B. degeneration
     C. idioadaptation
461. Choose the correct answer. How many motile larval stages exist in the life cycle of Fasciola hepatica:
     A. one
     B. two
     C. three
     D. four
462. Choose the correct answer. As the organism is called, in the body of which adult mature individuals of the parasitic worm live:
     A. definitive host
     B. intermediate host
     V. temporary owner
     G. permanent owner
463. Choose the correct answer. Name the representatives of the animal world, in whose body the first larval stage of the Diphyllobothrium latum develops:
     A. human 
     B. cyclops
     C. ants
     D. small pond snail
464. Choose the correct answer. Which of the parasites has the smallest size:
    А. Echinococcus granulosus
    B. Taeniarhynchus saginatus 
    C. Diphyllobothrium latum        
465. Choose the correct answer. Natural focal transmissive diseases have:
     A. mechanical transporter
     B. blood-sucking carrier
     C. сontacts transmission path
466. Choose the correct answer. Geohelminthes are:
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Diphyllobothrium latum 
     B. Ascaris lumbricoides and Trichocephalus trichiuris
     C. Taeniarhynchus saginatus and Taenia solium
467. Choose the correct answer. The class Actually roundworms (Nematoda) includes:   
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Diphyllobothrium latum 
     B. Trichinella spiralis and Trichocephalus trichiuris
     C. Enterobius vermicularis and Schistosoma haematobium
468. Choose the correct answer. The class Actually roundworms (Nematoda) includes:   
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Taenia solium 
     B. Enterobius vermicularis and Ascaris lumbricoides  
     C. Trichocephalus trichiuris and Taeniarhynchus saginatus
469. Choose the correct answer. If you do not follow the rules of personal hygiene, you can become infected:
     A. Taeniasis
     B. Trichinosis
     C. Enterobiasis
470. Choose the correct answer. Fecal-oral way you can get:
     A. Taeniasis
     B. Trichinosis
     C. Ascariasis
471. Choose the correct answer. Fecal-oral way you can get:
     A. Trichuriasis
     B. Trichinosis
     C. Taeniasis
472. Choose the correct answer. Human skeletal muscles are the site of localization of the larvae:
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides  
     B. Trichinella spiralis 
     C. Enterobius vermicularis 
     D. Trichocephalus trichiuris
473. Choose the correct answer. Enterobius vermicularis parasitize:
     A. in the small intestine
     B. in the spleen
     C. in the large intestine
474. Choose the correct answer. Trichocephalus trichiuris parasitize:
     A. in the small intestine
     B. in the spleen
     C. in the large intestine
475. Choose the correct answer. In Ascaris lumbricoides is absent:
     A. body cavity
     B. nervous system
     C. fixation organs
     D. digestive system
476. Choose the correct answer. In Enterobius vermicularis is absent:
     A. body cavity
     B. nervous system
     C. circulatory system
     D. digestive system
477. Choose the correct answer. Аll representatives of the type Nemathelminthes are absent:
     A. digestive system
     B. respiratory system
     С. excretory system
     D. nervous system
     G. reproductive system
478. Choose the correct answer. Аll representatives of the type Nemathelminthes has:
     A. primary a body cavity
     B. secondary a body cavity
     C. cavity is absent
479. Choose the correct answer. Annelid worms evolved from the ancient:
     A. protozoa,
     B. intestinal
     C. roundworms
     D. free-living Plathelminthes
480. Choose the correct answer. Multi-layered cuticle on the surface of Ascaris lumbricoides:
     A. helps move
     B. helps to bend the body
     C. protects the parasite from the action of enzymes
     D. provides penetration of nutrients
481. Choose the correct answer. Body cavity of roundworms:
     A. is called primary
     B. is called secondary
     C. is called mixed
     D. is absent
482. Choose the correct answer. Missing egg stage in the life cycle:
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides  
     B. Trichinella spiralis 
     C. Enterobius vermicularis 
     D. Trichocephalus trichiuris
483. Choose the correct answer. The composition of the skin-muscular sac of Ascaris lumbricoides includes:
     A. cuticle and one layer of transverse muscles
     B. cuticle and diagonal muscles
     C. cuticle, hypodermis and layer of longitudinal muscles
     D. cuticle and one layer of annular muscles
484. Choose the correct answer. Enterobius vermicularis can be long:
     A. 4mm
     B. 1cm
     С. 40cm
     D. 80cm
485. Choose the correct answer. The female of Ascaris lumbricoides lays daily:
     A. 10 eggs
     B. 200 eggs
     С. 2000 eggs
     D. 200000 eggs
486. Choose the correct answer. Chlorogenic cells of Annelids аге:
     A. secrete mucus
     B. secrete digestive enzymes
     C. accumulate exchange products
     D. perform a protective function
487. Choose the correct answer. Parapodia are available for:
     A. Trichinella spiralis 
     B. Enterobius vermicularis 
     C. Nereids
488. Choose the correct answer. The composition of the skin-muscular sac of Annelids includes the epithelium and:
     A. one layer of muscle
     B. two layers of muscles
     C. three layers of muscles
     D. Four layers of muscle
489. Choose the correct answer. Which invertebrate animals has a closed circulatory system:
     A. Plathelminthes
     B. Annelides
     C. Nemathelminthes
490. Choose the correct answer. Hermaphrodite is not:
     A. Plathelminthes
     B. Annelides
     C. Nemathelminthes
491. Choose the correct answer. The role of the "heart" of the Annelides is performed:
     A. abdominal vessel
     B. spinal vessel
     С. a number of annular vessels
     D. аll answers are correct     
492. Choose the correct answer. Sexual dimorphism is present in:
     A. Protozoa
     B. Annelides
     C. Nemathelminthes
493. Choose the correct answer. Which of the scientists studied the importance of Annelides in soil formation processes:
     A.  Lamarck
     B.  Darwin
     C.  Vernadsky
     D.  Vavilov
494. Choose the correct answer. Ascaris lumbricoides is not removed from the intestines with undigested food, because:
     A. has a high fecundity
     B. can live in an oxygen-free environment
     C. able to move in the opposite direction of food movement
495. Choose the correct answer. Hirudo medicinalis introduces into the wound a substance that prevents blood from clotting, which is called:
     A. geritrin
     B. hepatrine
     C. hirudin
     D. erythromycin
496. Choose the correct answer. Biohelminths include:
     A. Trichinella spiralis 
     B. Ascaris lumbricoides 
     C. Nereids
497. Choose the correct answer. Through vegetables and fruits contaminated with earth, you can get:
     A. Echinococcosis
     B. Taeniasis
     C. Trichinosis
     D. Ascariasis
498. Choose the correct answer. Ascaris lumbricoides parasitizes a person:
     A. in the stomach
     B. small intestine
     C. large intestine
     D. in the liver
499. Choose the correct answer. In the process of evolution Annelides appears:
     A. digestive system
     B. excretory system
     C. circulatory system
     D. nervous system
500. Choose the correct answer. The body cavity of annelids is called:
     A. primary
     B. secondary
     C. mixed
501. Choose the correct answer. The nervous system of annelids consists of:
     A. individual nerve cells
     B. nerve nodes localized throughout the body
     С. head nodes and trunks extending from them
     D. epipharyngeal and pharyngeal ganglia and double nerve cord
502. Choose the correct answer. Adaptation to parasitism in Ascaris lumbricoides is:
     A. developed nervous system
     B. multi-layered cuticle
     C. developed sense organs
     D. the presence of the skin-muscular sac
503. Choose the correct answer. The larvae can be transmitted by transmissive way:
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides
     B. Enterobius vermicularis 
     C. Trichinella spiralis 
     D. Filarias
504. Choose the correct answer. Nemathelminthes in the body cavity is present:
     A. air
     B. liquid
     C. blood
505. Choose the correct answer. Ascaris lumbricoides can be long:
     A. 4mm
     B. 1cm
     С. 40cm
     D. 80cm
506. Choose the correct answer. Body shape of Nemathelminthes:
     A. may vary in length and width
     B. does not change, since there is a cuticle and a cavity fluid - a hydroscope
     С. changes only in free-living forms that do not have a cuticle
507. Choose the correct answer. The Ascaris lumbricoides egg becomes invasive if:
     A. gets into the gastrointestinal tract immediately after discharge from the body of a sick person
     B. will pass through the organism of an intermediate host
     C. about a month will be in the soil
508. Choose the correct answer. In the digestive system of the Annelides for the pharynx follows:
     A. stomach
     B. esophagus
     С. goiter
509. Choose the correct answer. Goiter is the extended part:
     A. stomach
     B. intestine
     C. throat
     D. esophagus
510. Choose the correct answer. What substances secrete glands of the earthworm esophagus:
     A. enzymes that destroy the walls of plant cells
     B. lime
     C. substances that protect the intestines from damage by soil
511. Choose the correct answer. In the digestive system of annelids:
     A. the intestine is blindly closed
     B. intestine is missing
     C. the intestine is differentiated into sections and ends with the anus
512. Choose the correct answer. The larva of which roundworm carries out the process of migration from the intestine through the blood vessels to the lungs, and then again into the intestine:
    А. Trichinella spiralis
    В. Enterobius vermicularis
    С.  Ascaris lumbricoides
513. Choose the correct answer. In the body of microfilariae is absent system:
     A. digestive system
     B. еxcretory system
     С. nervous system
     D. respiratory system
514. Choose the correct answer. In the body of Cyclops sternuus is absent system:
     A. digestive system
     B. еxcretory system
     С. nervous system
     D. respiratory system
515. Choose the correct answer. Which tick (acarus) causes acne on the face:
     A. Demodex folliculorum 
     B. Sarcoptes scabiei
     C. Iхоdes persulcatus
516. Choose the correct answer. What ticks are parasites in human skin:
     A. Iхоdes ricinus and Iхоdes persulcatus
     B. Оrnithodorus papillipes and Iхоdes persulcatus
     C. Demodex folliculorum and Sarcoptes scabiei
517. Choose the correct answer. The respiratory system is absent in:
     A. Ascaris lumbricoides
     B. Enterobius vermicularis 
     C. Trichinella spiralis 
     D. Filarias
518. Choose the correct answer. The respiratory system is absent in:
     A. Cyclops sp.
     B. Crustacea
     C. Daphnia pulex
519. Choose the correct answer. Infection of a person with scabies is done in the following way:
     A. fecal-oral
     B. sexually
     C. contact
     D. alimentary
520. Choose the correct answer. How many pairs of modified legs are located in a crayfish on both sides of the mouth:
     A. two
     B. three
     C. four
     D. six
521. Choose the correct answer. How many pairs of walking legs has a spider:
     A. one
     B. two
     C. three
     D. four
522. Choose the correct answer. The body cavity of type Arthropoda is called:
     A. primary
     B. secondary
     C. mixed
523. Choose the correct answer. The class Arachnoidea includes:  
     A. Daphnia pulex
     B. Iхоdes persulcatus
     C. Cyclops sternuus
524. Choose the correct answer. The class Crustacea includes:  
     A. Daphnia pulex
     B. Iхоdes persulcatus
     C. Sarcoptes scabiei
525. Choose the correct answer. The class Insecta includes:  
     A. Daphnia pulex
     B. Iхоdes persulcatus
     C. Sarcoptes scabiei
     D. Pediculus humanus 
526. Choose the correct answer. The respiratory organs of the Cyclops are:
     A. gills
     B. trachea
     C. pulmonary sacs
     D. breathes throughout the body surface

IV. Medical genetics
527. Choose two correct answers. According to what signs G. Mendel chose peas as the object of his research:     
    A. cross-pollinated    
    B. self-pollinating   
    C. perennial   
    D. has contrasting signs  
    G. smoothed features
528. Choose the correct answer.  How many alternative traits are taken into account in monohybrid crossing:
    A. one
    B. two
    C. three
    D. four
529. Choose the correct answer.  What is the name of the zygote from which the first generation hybrids develop:     
   A. homozygote
   B. heterozygote
530. Choose two correct answers. What gametes are formed in the first generation hybrids:
    A. hybrid
    B. non-hybrid
    C. mixed
    D. clean
531. Choose the correct answer.  Where are the genes of paired traits in dihybrid crossing:
    A. in one chromosome
    B. in homologous chromosomes
    C. in different pairs of chromosomes
532. Choose two correct answers. Where are nonallelic genes:
    A. in one chromosome
    B. in homologous chromosomes
    C. in different pairs of chromosomes
533. Choose two correct answers. The law of purity of gametes says:
    A. The gametes contain one pair of allelic genes
    B. gametes contain two pairs of allelic genes
    C. gametes contain one gene from each allelic pair
    D. in a heterozygote, the genes do not mix with each other
534. Choose the correct answer.  What is the splitting of the genotype observed when monohybrid crossing in the second generation: 
    A. 1:3
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:8:3:3:1
535. Choose the correct answer.  What is the splitting of the genotype observed in the dihybrid crosses of  the first generation:
    A. 1:3
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:8:3:3:1
    G. there is no splitting
536. Choose two correct answers. Homozygotes are individuals that give during self-pollination:
     A. one variety of gametes
     B. two varieties of gametes
     C. non-splitting offspring
     D. fissile offspring
537. Choose the correct answer.  The method of obtaining clean lines is based on:
      A. cross pollination
      B. self-pollination
      C. art pollination
538. Choose the correct answer. Where is the gene located:
      A. in the cytoplasm
      B. in the nucleolus
      C. in nuclear juice
      D. in the chromosome
539. Choose the correct answer.  Where information is coded about one particular feature:
     A. RNA
     B. DNA
     C. in the gene
     D. ATF
540. Choose the correct answer. How many genes in the chromosomes of the hybrid organism are responsible for the same trait in monohybrid crossing: 
     A. one
     B. two
     C. three
     D. аll answers are incorrect
541. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the genes responsible for the formation of the same trait:
      A. аllelic
      B. nonallelic
      C. alternative
      D. dominant
542. Choose the correct answer. What is more subject to change under the influence of environmental conditions:
      A. genotype
      B. phenotype
      C. zygote
543. Choose the correct answer. Who discovered the laws of independent inheritance of characters:
    A. by T. Morgan
    B. by G. Mendel 
    C. by D. Watson and F. Crick
    D. by W. Johannsen
544. Choose the correct answer. Who entered the term gene:
    A. by T. Morgan
    B. by G. Mendel 
    C. by D. Watson and F. Crick
    D. by W. Johannsen
545. Choose the correct answer. Polyploid cell is formed:
    A. as a result of gene mutation
    B. as a result of chromosomal mutation
    C. at nondisjunction of chromosomes
546. Choose the correct answer.  What signs are called alternative:
    A. the same
    B. opposites
    C. similar
547. Choose the correct answer. Who is the founder of genetics:
    A. by T. Morgan
    B. by G. Mendel 
    C. by D. Watson and F. Crick
548. Choose two correct answers. As they call signs of a hybrid, manifested in the first generation: 
    A. dominant
    B. recessive
    C. suppressed
    D. prevailable
549. Choose the correct answer. What method of pollination did G. Mendel use to get second generation hybrids:
    A. cross pollination
    B. self-pollination
    C. artificial pollination
550. Choose two correct answers. What signs are paired in peas:
    A. yellow and green color
    B. yellow color and smooth surface
    C. smooth and wrinkled surface
    D. green color and wrinkled surface
551. Choose the correct answer.  Where are the allelic genes:
    A. in one chromosome
    B. in homologous chromosomes
    C. in different pairs of chromosomes
552. Choose the correct answer.  How are allelic genes distributed during the formation of gametes:
    A. appear in different gametes
    B. appear in the same gamete
    C. mixed together
553. Choose the correct answers. The law of purity of gametes says:
    A. the gametes contain one pair of allelic genes
    B. gametes contain two pairs of allelic genes
    C. gametes contain one gene from each allelic pair
554. Choose the correct answer. What kind of phenotypic cleavage is observed with monohybrid crossbreeding in the second generation:
    A. 1:3
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:8:3:3:1
555. Choose the correct answer.  What is the splitting of the phenotype observed in the dihybrid crosses of the first generation:
    A. 1:3
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:8:3:3:1
    G. there is no splitting
556. Choose the correct answer.  What is the splitting of the phenotype observed in the dihybrid crosses of the second generation:
    A. 1:3
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 9:3:3:1
    D. 1:8:3:3:1
    G. there is no splitting
557. Choose two correct answers.  Heterozygotes are individuals that give during self-pollination:
     A. one variety of gametes
     B. two varieties of gametes
     C. non-fissile offspring
     D. fissile offspring
558. Choose the correct answer.  What information carries the gene:
    A. about the manifestation of the trait
    B. about the synthesis of the primary protein molecule
    C. on the formation of an organ
559. Choose the correct answer.  The structure of which structure includes the gene:
    A. carbohydrate
    B. DNA
    C. amino acids
    D. ATF
560. Choose two correct answers.  Allelic genes are located: 
    A. in different chromosome loci
    B. in identical loci
    C. in homologous chromosomes
    D. in different pairs of chromosomes
561. Choose the correct answer.  The birth of offspring similar to parents occurs under the influence of:
    A. phenotype
    B. genotype
    C. zygote
562. Choose the correct answer. When moving to the highlands, the cows become short and not very rich, and this changes:
    A. рhenotype
    B. genotype 
    C. genotype and phenotype simultaneously
563. Choose three correct answers. Who in 1900 again rediscovered the laws of G. Mendel:
    A. D. Watson and F. Creek (USA)
    B. Johannson (Denmark)
    C. Correns (Germany)
    D. Chermak (Austria)
    G. de Vries (Holland)
564. Choose the correct answer.  Who deciphered the DNA code:
    A. by T. Morgan
    B. by G. Mendel 
    C. by D. Watson and F. Crick
565. Choose the correct answer.  Linked inheritance of traits was established:
    A. by T. Morgan
    B. by G. Mendel 
    C. by D. Watson 
566. Choose the correct answer.  Which genes are coded alternative traits:
    A. allelic genes
    B. nonallelic genes
    C. similar genes
567. Choose the correct answer.  The totality of all genes of a diploid organism is called: 
    A. genotype
    B. phenotype
    C. gene
    D. locus 
568. Choose the correct answer.  What types of gametes does an AaBb organism form if the analyzed pairs of genes are localized in different pairs of homologous chromosomes: 
    A. Аb, АВ, аb, аВ
    B. АВ and ab
    C. Aa and Bb
569. Choose the correct answer. What gametes forms a hybrid organism Dd:
    A. only D 
    B. only d
    C. D and d
    D. d and d
570. Choose the correct answer.  Multiple alleles of a single gene are formed as a result of:
    A. modifications
    B. mutations
    C. alternative gene fusion
571. Choose the correct answer.  To establish the genotype of the individual (analyzing crossing) carry out its crossing with the body: 
    A. having a recessive trait 
    B. having a dominant trait 
    C. similar in phenotype
572. Choose the correct answer.  Possible number of crossover forms:
    A. always exceeds 50%,
    B. always less than 50%
    C. is 100%.
573. Choose the correct answer. In the case of incomplete dominance, the phenotype cleavage in descendants from the crossing of two heterozygous individuals is: 
    A. 3:1
    B. 1:2:1
    C. 1:1
    D. 9:3:3:1
574. Choose the correct answer. Genes localized in one chromosome are:
    A. alternative
    B. allelic
    C. clutch group
575. Choose the correct answer.  In humans, clutch groups:   
    A. 21
    B. 46
    C. 48
    D. 23
576. Choose the correct answer. At pea clutch groups: 
    A. seven 
    B. fourteen 
    C. twenty eight
577. Choose the correct answer.  The number of crossover gametes will be greater if the distance between the genes controlling the trait studied is equal to:  
    A. 10 Morganids   
    B. 25 Morganids 
    C. 5 Morganids
578. Choose the correct answer.  Pleiotropy is a phenomenon in which:
     A. the trait is controlled by several pairs of genes
     B. priznak is controlled by one pair of genes
     C. one pair of genes controls the manifestation of several traits
579. Choose the correct answer.  Crossover frequency depends on:   
     A. from the distance between the genes in the chromosomes 
     B. from the distance between the chromosomes 
     C. from the probability of meeting gametes
580. Choose the correct answers.  When the АаВв genotypes in a male Drosophila fly is the gamete:
     A. АВ
     B. Ав
     C. аВ
     D. ав
581. Choose the correct answer.  Crossover frequency is a value:  
     A. inversely proportional
     B. directly proportional
     C. geometric progression
582. Choose the correct answer. The distance between genes is measured in:   
     A. cm    
     B. in microns 
     C. in shares   
     G. in the morganids
583. Choose the correct answer.  Gamete contains:     
     A. genes from different allelic pairs  
     B. a pair of homologous chromosomes
     C. gene from allelic pair
584. Choose two correct answers. A variation curve reflecting the change of the trait within the normal reaction shows that the organisms:
     A. with the average value of the trait occur with high frequency
     B. with the average value of the trait occur with a low frequency
     C. extreme values of the trait are rare
     D. with average and extreme values have the same frequency of occurrence
585. Choose the correct answer.  The probability of an Rh conflict with a mother’s Rh (-) marriage and a Rh (+) father heterozygous for this trait is:
     A. 50%
     B. 100%
     C. 0%
     D. 25%
     G. 75%
586. Choose two correct answers. Eukaryotic DNA molecule:
     A. ring-shaped
     B. linear
     C. single stranded
     D. double-stranded
587. Choose the correct answer.  What is the name of the locus of the DNA molecule encoding information on the structure of a specific protein:
    A. genotype
    B. phenotype
    C. gene
    D. zygote
588. Choose the correct answer.  That is formed by merging of the sperm and ovum:
    A. Homozygote
    B. Heterozygote
    C. Zygote
    D. Multiple alleles
589. Choose the correct answer.  How many gamete types does an AaBb organism form if the analyzed pairs of genes are located in different pairs of homologous chromosomes:
    A. one type of gametes 
    B. two types of gametes 
    C. three types of gametes 
    D. four types of gametes
590. Choose the correct answer.  The further the genes are from each other in the chromosome, the crossover forms will be: 
    A. more
    B. less 
    C. their number does not change
591. Choose the correct answer. In the interaction of the type of codominance:
    A. in the phenotype, both allelic genes simultaneously appear
    B. in the phenotype one of the allelic genes appears
    C. the dominant gene does not completely suppress the action of the recessive gene
592. Choose the correct answer. A woman with hemophilia and a healthy man enters into marriage. The possibility of the phenotypic manifestation of this trait in children is:
    A. 50% among boys
    B. 50% among girls
    C. 100% among boys
    D. equiprobable in both girls and boys 
593. Choose the correct answer. The number of clutch groups is: 
    A. the set of chromosomes
    B. the number of pairs of chromosomes
    C. haploid set of chromosomes
594. Choose the correct answer. Fly - Drosophila clutch groups: 
    A. eight
    B. four
    C. sixteen
595. Choose the correct answer. In humans, clutch groups:   
    A. 21
    B. 46
    C. 48
    D. 23
596. Choose the correct answer.  The distance between the genes, according to the theory of T. Morgan, is determined by:  
     A. the percentage of crossover organisms obtained by analyzing crosses
     B. the percentage of crossover gametes
     C. with the hybridization of somatic cells
597. Choose the correct answers.  When the АаВв genotypes in the female Drosophila fly, gametes are formed:
    A. АВ
    B. Ав
    C. аВ
    D. ав
598. Choose the correct answer.  Genes localized in one chromosome are inherited:
     A. coupled
     B. independently of each other 
     C. linked with sex chromosomes
599. Choose the correct answer.  Which of the following is included in the concept of genotype:
     A. АВС
     B. ВСDd
     C. Ss
     D. AR
600. Choose the correct answer.  In an individual with the АаВвСс genotype, where the genes are absolutely absolute, therefore it forms:
     A. 2 types of gametes
     B. 4 types of gametes
     C. 8 types of gametes
     D. 16 types of gametes
601. Choose the correct answer. If the distance between the A-B genes is 15 morganides, the A-C genes of the 25 morganides, and the B-C is 10 morganides of the genes, then the genes in the chromosome are arranged as follows:
     A. В-А-С
     B. А-В-С
     C. А-С-В
602. Choose the correct answer.  The probability of an Rh conflict in the marriage of an Rh (+) heterozygous mother and Rh (-) on this basis of the father is:
     A. 50%
     B. 100%
     C. 0%
     D. 25%
     G. 75%
603. Choose the correct answer.  Sections that share genes are:
     A. introns
     B. spacers
     C. exons
     D. transposons
604. Choose two correct answers. RNA molecule of prokaryotes:
     A. ring-shaped
     B. linear
     C. single stranded
     D. double-stranded
605. Choose four correct answers.  New combinations of traits in organisms are possible as a result of:
     A. independent chromosome discrepancies
     B. crossing over
     C. random encounter of gametes during fertilization
     D. full linkage of genes
     G. random selection of parental pairs
606. Choose the correct answer.  In the interaction of the type of dominance:
     A. in the phenotype, both allelic genes simultaneously appear
     B. in the phenotype one of the allelic genes appears
     C. the dominant gene does not completely suppress the action of the recessive gene 
607. Choose the correct answer.  The probability of an Rh conflict in the marriage of an Rh (-) mother and Rh (-) on this basis of the father is:
     A. 50%
     B. 100%
     C. 0%
     D. 25%
     G. 75%