Вопросы к экзамену по ботанике. I Cytology 1. Choose the correct answer. What does botany study? A. science that studies the external and internal structure of algae, life activity, habitat conditions, origin and evolutionary development B. science that studies the external and internal structure of plants, life activity, habitat conditions, origin and evolutionary development C. science, studying the external and internal structure of fungi, life activity, habitat conditions, origin and evolutionary development D. science that studies the external and internal structure of viruses, life activity, habitat conditions, origin and evolutionary development 2. Choose the correct answer. Which industries use plants? A in industrial coal mining B. as medicines and raw materials for obtaining of medicines C. in the production of hydrocarbons D. as food for humans and animal feed 3. Choose the correct answers. Who is the founder of the science of Botany? A. Linnaeus B. Theophrastus C. Aristotle D. Lamarck 4. Choose the correct answer. What does algology study? A. Mosses B. Ferns C. Mushrooms D. Algae 5. Choose the correct answer. What does pteridology study? A. Mosses B. Ferns C. Mushrooms D. Algae 6. Choose the correct answer. What is the subject of study on the ontogenetic level of the organization of the living? A. Elementary unit is a gen B. Elementary unit is a cell C. Elementary unit is a molecular D. Elementary unit is the body 7. Choose the correct answer. What elementary phenomenon is studied at the population-species level? A. A change in the gene pool B. A growth of the organism C. A processes of differentiation of the cells 8. Choose the correct answer. What substances are associated the manifestation of life with? A. They are carbohydrates and mucopolysaccharides B. They are lipids and phospholipids C. They are proteins and nucleic acidis 9. Choose the correct answer. What fundamental properties of living organisms do you know? A. Heredity and variability B. Reproduction and self-renewal C. Growth and development 10. Choose the correct answer. What does the term irritability mean? A. Adaptation of an organism B. Response to irritation C. Metabolism and energy 11. Choose the correct answer. What does the term self-regulation mean? A. Is a process, as a result of which structures corresponding to the lost are restored B. Is it the less compact DNA form C. Is a property of systems to maintain internal stability at a сertain, relatively constant level 12. Choose the correct answer. What does the term self- renewal? A. Is maintains the integrity of genes and controls the activities of the cell B. Is a process, as a result of which structures corresponding to the lost are restored C. Is the complex of chemical processes that takes place in a living organism 13. Choose the correct answer. What is the subject of study at the cellular level of the organization of life? A. Elementary unit is a gen B. Elementary unit is a cell C. Elementary unit is a molecular D. Elementary unit is the body 14. Choose the correct answer. What is the subject of study at the molecular-genetic level of the organization of life? A. Elementary unit is a gen B. Elementary unit is a cell C. Elementary unit is a molecular D. Elementary unit is the organ 15. Choose the correct answer. open, self-reproducing and self-regulating system is: A. cell B. organ C. cytoplasm D. molecule 16. Choose the correct answer. The main proposition of cell theory is not the following statement: A . The cell is the smallest structural-functional unit of all living things B. Cells of all organisms are similar in structure and chemical composition C. All cells originated from different ancestors D. The nucleus is the main part of the eukaryotic cell 17. Choose the correct answer. What is the theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells is the main? A. cell theory B. symbiotic theory C. "sandwich" theory 18. Choose the correct answer. What cells in the process of evolution appeared first: A. eukaryotic cells B. the cells of fungi C. prokaryotic cells D. plant cells 19. Choose the correct answer. Membrane organelles are missing in: A. eukaryotic cells B. the cells of fungi C. prokaryotic cells D. plant cells 20. Choose the correct answer. What does the term a growth of the organism? A. Provides continuity between generations of organisms B. Increase in the number or size of its cell C. It is a form of the body’s response to irritation 21. What properties of living organisms are fundamental:     A. irritability     B. metabolism and energy C. self-renewal   D. reproduction     G. discreteness 22. Choose the correct answer. What is the difference between plant cells and animal cells: A. there are cell wall, glycocalyx and plastids B. there is no cell wall, there are plastids, vacuoles, spare substance-glycogen C. no cell walls, no plastids, vacuole, D. there are cell wall, plastids, vacuole, spare substance-starch 23. Choose the correct answer.The similarity of the structure and functioning of the cells of the organisms of different kingdoms of living nature is one of the provisions:   A. teaching about ontogenesis     B. theory of evolution   C. cell theory     D. laws of heredity 24. Choose the correct answer. The living contents of the cell, - pressed in the form of a rather thin layer to the cell wall-is: A. mitochondria B. membrane C. protoplast D. leucoplast 25. Choose the correct answer. What is contained in vacuoles: A. water B. nucleaplasm C. cytoplasm D. cellular juice 26. Choose the correct answer. What does the cytoplasmic membrane consist of: A. from phospholipids and proteins B. from carbohydrates C. from starch D. only from proteins 27. Choose the correct answer. The main function of the cytoplasmic membrane is: A. permeability B. protein synthesis C. storage of hereditary information D. ATP synthesis 28. Choose the correct answer. The liquid content of the cell forms: A. cytoplasm B. organelles C. membrane D. cell wall 29. Choose the correct answer. By organelles of plant cells include: A. vacuole, plastids, cytoplasm, cell wall B. nucleus, lysosomes, Golgi complex, glycocalyx C. plastids, glycocalyx, nucleus, vacuole, lysosomes 30. Choose the correct answer. The vacuole membrane is called: A. protoplast B. chloroplast C. tonoplast D. leukoplast 31. Choose the correct answer. What is the reserve substance in plant cells: A. glycogen B. glucose C. starch D. cellulose 32. Choose the correct answer. The main function of vacuoles in plant cells: A .the capacity of the electoral B. maintaining turgor pressure C. nutrient accumulation D. protein synthesis 33. Choose the correct answer. What organelles are present in the bacterial cell: A. mitochondria B. lysosomes C. ribosomes D. Golgi complex 34. Choose the correct answer. The cells of the organisms of all the kingdoms of living nature have:   A. plasma membrane     B. cell wall     С. Golgi complex     D. core 35. Choose the correct answer. Which organelles have a membrane: A. cell centre B. lysosomes C. ribosomes D. microfilaments 36. Choose the correct answer. The function of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum: A. synthesis of ATP B. participation in the synthesis of fats C. protein synthesis D. provides permeability in a cell 37. Choose the correct answer. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum: A. synthesizes only proteins B. has ribosomes C. does not have a ribosome and participates in the synthesis of fats D. synthesizes RNA 38. Choose two correct answers. According to cell theory, all cells of organisms are: A. homologous     B. similar   C. have a common origin     D. perform a uniform function 39. Choose the correct answers. According to cell theory, which organisms are homologous cells:     A. viruses and plant cells     B. bacteriophages and viruses C. plant and bacterial cells   D. animal and plant cells     G. bacteriophages and animal cells 40. Choose the correct answer. Which section of botany studies the processes occurring inside the plant body and establishes the relationship between the structure and conditions of existence:     A. anatomy of plants     B. plant biochemistry C. plant physiology     D. cytology of plants 41. Choose the correct answer. Cytoskeleton is absent:     A. in eukaryotic cells   B. in blue-green algae and bacteria     C. in plant cells 42. Choose the correct answer. What substance is part of the cell wall only in bacteria:     A. lipids     B. glycocalix C. mureic acid     D. proteins 43. Choose the correct answer. Which organelles do not have a membrane structure: A. mitochondria and plastids B. cell center and ribosomes C. EPS and Golgi complex D. spherosomes and lysosomes 44. Choose the correct answer. A mandatory part of any cell is: A. core B. lysosomes C. cytoplasm D. plastids 45. Choose the correct answer. Synthesis of carbohydrates is carried out: A. on ribosomes B. in mitochondria C. in the core D. on smooth EPS 46. Choose the correct answer. In the prokaryotic cell are missing: A. core B. ribosomes C. cytoplasm 47. Choose the correct answer. What organelles have a membrane structure: A. cell center B. microtubules C. microfilaments D. lysosomes 48. Choose the correct answer. The constituent parts of a eukaryotic cell are: A. nucleus and cytoplasm B. nucleus, cytoplasm and cytolemma C. organelles, cytolemma and cytoplasm D. nucleus, organelles and cell wall 49. Choose the correct answer. Ribosomes are located: A. only on EPS B. on EPS and in the cytoplasm C. on EPS, in the cytoplasm and mitochondria D. only in cytoplasm and mitochondria 50. Choose the correct answer. Which of the organelles are involved in protein biosynthesis: A. lysosomes B. Golgi complex C. cell center D. rough EPS G. microtubules 51. Choose the correct answer. What protein microtubules consist of: A. of protein actin B. of collagen protein C. of tubulin protein D. of protein myosin 52. Choose the correct answer. What is the function of lysosomes: A. synthesis of carbohydrates and fats B. participation in cell division C. ATP synthesis D. intracellular digestion G. protein synthesis for the cell 53. Choose the correct answer. What function does a smooth EPS: A. synthesis of carbohydrates B. participation in cell division C. ATP synthesis D. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell 54. Choose the correct answer. What is the function of mitochondria: A. synthesis of carbohydrates B. participation in cell division C. ATP synthesis D. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell 55. Choose the correct answer. Dictyosome is a structural unit: A. mitochondria B. plastids C. cell center D. Golgi complex 56. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to two membrane: A. mitochondria B. ribosomes C. cell center D. Golgi complex 57. Choose the correct answer. Inclusions are: A. temporary formations of cytoplasm B. permanent formation of cytoplasm C. non-membrane organelles 58. Choose the correct answer. Where is the synthesis of ATP: A. in ribosomes B. in lysosomes C. in mitochondria D. in mitochondria and lysosomes 59. Choose the correct answer. What do lysosomes contain: A. oxidoreductase B. set of nucleic acids C. glycogen D. fats G. hydrolytic enzymes 60. Choose the correct answer. Centrioles are part of: A. lamellar complex B. cell center C. plastids D. centromere 61. Choose the correct answer. What number of microtubules is part of the cell center: A. 34 B. 27 C. 68 D. 54 62. Choose the correct answer. What types of inclusions does glycogen belong to: A. pigmented B. trophic C. secretory D. nonspecific 63. Choose the correct answer. In the prokaryotic cell are missing: A. lysosomes B. ribosomes C. cytoplasm 64. Choose the correct answer. What organelles have a membrane structure: A. EPS B. cell center C. microtubules D. microfilaments 65. Choose the correct answer. The components of a prokaryotic cell are: A. nucleus and cytoplasm B. nucleoid, cytoplasm and cytolemma C. organelles, cytolemma and cytoplasm D. nucleus, organelles and cell wall 66. Choose the correct answer. Hyaloplasma is: A. structureless liquid medium of the cytoplasm B. fibrillar structures C. inclusions 67. Choose the correct answer. The components of the cytoskeleton are: A. system of cytoplasmic channels B. special purpose organelles C. microtubules and microfilaments D. the whole system of cell organelles 68. Choose the correct answer. Ribosome function: A. are involved in the movement of substances inside the compartments in the cell B. are involved in the breakdown of protein C. take part in protein biosynthesis 69. Choose the correct answer. Which of the organelles deposited calcium ions: A. Golgi complex B. cell center C. microtubules D. EPS 70. Choose two correct answers. Ribosomes belong to the group: A. single-membrane organelles B. double membrane organelles C. inclusions D. non-membrane organelles G. temporary organelles 71. Choose the correct answer. What function does the Golgi complex perform: A. participation in cell division B. ATP synthesis C. intracellular digestion D. protein synthesis for the cell G. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell 72. Choose the correct answer. What function does a smooth EPS: A. synthesis of fats B. participation in cell division C. ATP synthesis D. рackaging and secretion of secrets and excreta outside the cell 73. Choose the correct answer. Which of the organelles are involved in protein biosynthesis: A. microtubules B. chloroplasts C. cell center D. Golgi complex 74. Choose the correct answer. What function does a rough EPS: A. synthesis of carbohydrates and fats B. participation in cell division C. ATP synthesis D. intracellular digestion G. protein synthesis for cell 75. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to single-membrane: A. ribosomes B. cell center C. Golgi complex D. microtubules 76. Choose the correct answer. Thylakoids are a structural unit: A. Golgi complex B. cell center C. microtubules D. EPS G. plastids 77. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to single-membrane: A. microtubules B. microfilaments C. lysosomes D. inclusions 78. Choose the correct answer. What function do the ribosomes: A. synthesis of carbohydrates and fats B. participation in cell division C. intracellular digestion D. protein synthesis for cell 79. Choose the correct answer. What organelles belong to two membranes: A. plastids B. ribosomes C. cell center D. Golgi complex 80. Choose the correct answer. The nucleolus is: A. the site of ribosome subunit synthesis B. an element that performs a structural function C. membrane organelle 81. Choose the correct answer. Nuclear matrix is: A. the skeletal structure that remains after the removal of nucleic acids B. structureless core contents C. deoxyribonucleoprotein 82. Choose the correct answer. Microtubules perform the function: A. cell protection B. synthesis of organic substances C. accumulation of nutrients D. skeletal cells 83. Choose the correct answer. Where does the formation of ribosomes occur: A. in EPS B. in the Golgi complex C. in the cytoplasm D. in the nucleoli 84. Choose the correct answer. What organelles take part in the synthesis of protein: A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Lysosome C. Ribosome 85. Choose the correct answer. Which organelles are typical only for plants cells: A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Lysosome C. Ribosome D. Plastids 86. Choose the correct answer. Chlorophyll and chloroplasts are formed only when .... A. water availability B. the presence of light C. the presence of salts D. lack of moisture 87. Choose the correct answer. The membrane granular EPS in its structure: A. has similarities with the outer nuclear membrane B. has similarities with cytolemma C. has similarity with the outer mitochondrial membrane 88. Choose the correct answer. Components of the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells: A. organelles and inclusions B. membrane and non-membrane organelles C. nucleus and organelles D. organelles, inclusions and hyaloplasm G. hyaloplasm, nucleus and organelles 89. Choose the correct answer.Рrotein tubulin is part of the organelles: A. microfilament B. plastids C. microtubules 90. Choose the correct answer. Рrotein actin is part of the organelles: A. microfilament B. plastids C. microtubules 91. Choose the correct answer. Colorless plastids are: A. chloroplasts B. chromoplast C. leukoplast 92. Choose the correct answer. What organelles are cavities in a cage filled with watery contents - cell sap: A. chloroplasts B. vacuoles C. microfilaments D. chromoplasts 93. Choose the correct answer. The inner mitochondrial membrane forms:      A. granins      B. thylakoids   C. tubules 94. Choose the correct answer. A plant cell vacuole performs the functions of: A. osmoregulation     B. excretory     С. digestive 95. Choose two correct answers. Which of the following is attributed to the secondary derivatives of protoplast:   A. excretory substances     B. cell wall and cell sap   C. nutrients     G. cell organelles 96. Choose the correct answer. Dehydrated vacuoles of mature seeds are called: A. starch grains B. alkaloids C. aleurone grains D. glucose 97. Choose the correct answer. Turgor is: A. increase in cell volume B. reduction of cell volume C. the elastic state of the cell D. plasmolysis 98. Choose the correct answer. The structural proteins of the membrane perform the function: A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis) B. hormone transfer C. ion transport D. support function G. transfer (transport) of water 99. Choose the correct answer. Enzymatic proteins perform the function: A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis) B. hormone transfer C. ion transport D. catalytic function G. transfer (transport) of water 100. Choose the correct answer. Receptor proteins perform the function of: A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis) B. hormone transfer C. ion transport D. catalytic function 101. Choose two correct answers. The passage of water through a semipermeable membrane without energy is called: A. diffusion B. osmosis C. active transport D. passive transport 102. Choose the correct answer. Aquaporins proteins perform the function: A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis) B. hormone transfer C. ion transport D. transfer (transport) of water 103. Choose the correct answer. Tunnel proteins perform the function: A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis) B. hormone transfe C. ion transport D. transfer (transport) of water 104. Choose the correct answer. Water molecules enter the cell: A. by diffusion B. with transport membrane proteins C. by phagocytosis D. by osmosis 105. Choose the correct answer. Gas molecules enter the celll: A. by diffusion B. with transport membrane proteins C. by phagocytosis D. by osmosis 106. Choose the correct answer. Loss of turgor leads to: A. the wilting of the plant B. the normal physiological state in the cell C. cell death D. does not change the physiological state of the cell 107. Choose the correct answer. Primary derived protoplast is: A. cell membrane B. cytoplasm C. cellular vacuole D. cell wall 108. Choose the correct answer. What is the thickness of the plasmolemma (membrane): A. 10 nm B. 20 nm C. 30 nm 109. Choose the correct answer. Plasmolemma is: A. monomolecular membrane layer B. bimolecular membrane layer C. three-layer membrane 110. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the mode of transport through the membrane with the help of protein-carrier and without energy: A. diffusion B. active transport C. pinocytosis D. osmosis 111. Choose the correct answer. Name the mode of transport in which the molecules of the solute move independently through the outer plasma membrane in the direction of a lower concentration of this solute: A. diffusion B. active transport C. osmosis. 112. Choose the correct answer. As a decrease in the temperature of the solution affects the rate of diffusion of substances through the outer plasma membrane of the cell: A. reduces speed B. increases speed C. does not change the speed 113. Choose the correct answer. The capture of substances from the extracellular space by invagination of the outer cell membrane is called: A. endocytosis B. diffusion C. osmosis 114. Choose the correct answer. The concentration of K+ ions is greater: A. inside the cell B. extracellular environment C. is the same in the cell and extracellular environment 115. Choose the correct answer. The concentration of Na+ ions is greater: A. inside the cell B. extracellular environment C. is the same in the cell and extracellular environment 116. Choose the correct answer. The similarity of plant cells and bacteria is the presence of: A. plasmalemma B. core C. mitochondria D. vacuoles 117. Choose the correct answer. The cell membrane of plants, in contrast to the plasma membrane consists of: A. nucleic acids B. proteins and lipids C. сellulose D. аmino аcids 118. Choose the correct answer. The functions of the nuclear membrane: A. the separation of the nucleus from the cytoplasm B. regulation of the interaction of the nucleus and cytoplasm C. separation of hereditary material and regulation of the interaction of the nucleus and cytoplasm 119. Choose the correct answer. Molecules of glucose and amino acids enter the cell: A. by diffusion B. using membrane transport proteins С. by osmosis 120. Choose the correct answer. What property of water makes it a good solvent: A. high heat capacity B. slow heating and cooling C. molecular polarity 121. Choose the correct answer. The main function of the cell wall in the plant cells: A. Participates in the transport of nutrients B. Forms the organelles of the cell C. Gives the cell strength and determines its shape D. Gives the cell friability 122. Choose the correct answer. Characteristic features of the cytoplasm of plant cells:     A. neutral reaction and large amounts of water   B. alkaline reaction and a large amount of wate;     C. acid reaction and a small amount of wate. 123. Choose three correct answers. What do prokaryotes contain:    A. mitochondria   B. ribosomes     C. thylakoids   D. mesosomes   G. nucleoid     F. core 124. Choose the correct answer. What is the main substances of cell wall: A. it polysaccharides B. it proteins C. it enzymes D. it lipids 125. Choose two correct answers. What life forms of prokaryotes are found: A. single-celled     B. multicellular   C. colonial     D. helical 126. Choose tree correct answers. What life forms of eukaryotes are found:   A. single-celled   B. multicellular   C. colonial     D. helical     G. filamentous 127. Choose the correct answer. The main structural component of the cell wall is: A. glycoproteins B. starch C. cellulose D. glycogen 128. Choose the correct answer. The main structural component of cellulose molecules is: A. microfibrils B. matrix C. chitin D. glycogen 129. Choose the correct answer. Cell compartmentation is:     A. structural unit of tissue     B. part of the unmembrane formation of the cytoplasm     С. system of vacuoles and tubules   D. high ordering of the internal contents of the eukaryotic cell 130. Choose the correct answer. Which of the following is attributed to the primary protoplast derivatives:     A. excretory substances   B. cell wall and cell sap     C. nutrients     D. cell organelles 131. Choose the correct answer. which substances swell in water but soluble in acids and alkaloids: A. chitin C. suberin D. ectin substances 132. Choose the correct answer. All prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells has: A. mitochondria and nucleus B. vacuoles and Golgi complex C. nuclear membrane and chloroplasts D. cytolemma 133. Choose the correct answer. The internal membrane structure of prokaryotic cells is: A. mesosome B. ribosome C. lysosome D. dictyosome 134. Choose the correct answer. Movement of chloroplasts in the cytoplasm:     A. absent     B. active C. passive 135. Choose the correct answer. How much energy is released when splitting 1 gram of carbohydrates: A. 9.3 kcal B. 4.2 kcal C. 2.5 kcal D. 7.4 kcal 136. Choose the correct answer. Which group of biopolymers includes mannose to: A. to monosaccharides B. to oligosaccharides C. to polysaccharides D. to proteins 137. Choose the correct answer. Who from the scientists discovered the nucleic acids: A. Jacob and Mono B. Misсher C. Watson and Crick D. Davidson 138. Choose the correct answer. What substance is related to hexoses: A. deoxyribose B. fructose C. mannose D. lactose 139. Choose the correct answer. Structural proteins function as follows: A. transfer of substances (exo- and endocytosis) B. the transfer of hormones C. ion transport D. supporting function G. transport (transport) of water 140. Choose the correct answer. Which carbohydrates are belongs to pentoses: A. deoxyribose B. maltose C. sucrose D. fructose G. mannose 141. Choose the correct answer. What kind of chemical bonds that are formed between nucleotides in one nucleotide chain: A. hydrogen B. covalent C. ionic D. hydrophobic 142. Choose the correct answer. The protein molecule consists of sequentially arranged: A. of nucleotides B. of nitrogenous bases C. of amino acids D. of triplets 143. Choose the correct answer. How many carbon atoms are included in the ribose: A. three B. four C. five D. six 144. Choose the correct answer. Specificity of the protein molecule provides the structure of the protein: A. the primary B. the secondary C. the tertiary D. the quaternary 145. Choose the correct answer. The formation of globules is characteristic of the structure of the protein: A. the primary B. the secondary C. the tertiary D. the quaternary 146. Choose the correct answer. The tertiary structure of the protein is formed by: A. peptide bonds B. sulfhydryl bonds C. hydrogen bonding D. covalent bonds 147. Choose the correct answer. What is the RNA monomer: A. are amino acids B. are nucleotides C. are nitrogenous bases D. are ribose 148. Choose the correct answer. Which chemical compound is present in RNA, but absent in DNA: A. thymine B. deoxyribose C. ribose D.guanine G. cytosine 149. Choose the correct answer. What kind of chemical compound is not a carbohydrate: A. chitin B. keratin C. lactose D. galactose G. starch 150. Choose the correct answer. What is the chemical element related to microelements: A. О2 (oxygen) B. I (iodine) C. H (hydrogen) D. С (carbon) G. N (nitrogen) 151. Choose the correct answer. How much energy is released when splitting 1 gram of lipids: A. 9.3 kcal B. 4.2 kcal C. 2.5 kcal D. 7.4 kcal 152. Choose the correct answer. What level of the organization of the living, the study of the structure of enzymes is carried out: A. on ontogenetic level B. population-specific level C. cellular level D. molecular genetic level 153. Choose the correct answer. The primary structure of the protein is formed by: A. peptide bonds B. sulfhydryl bonds C. hydrogen bonds D. covalent bonds 154. Choose the correct answer. The secondary structure of the protein is formed by: A. peptide bonds B. sulfhydryl bonds C. hydrogen bonding D. covalent bonds 155. Choose the correct answer. What substances serve as universal biological energy accumulators in the cell: A. of proteins B. of lipids C. of DNA D. of ATP 156. Choose the correct answer. Monomers of proteins are: A. are nucleotides B. are nitrogenous bases C. are glycerin D. are amino acids G. are glucose 157. Choose the correct answer. How much energy is released when splitting 1 gram of protein: A. 8.4 kcal B. 4.2 kcal C. 2.5 kcal D. 9.3 kcal 158. Choose the correct answer. In the formation of ATP from ADP in one phosphorus bond is stored: A. 25 kJ B. 42 kJ C. 10 kJ D. 40 kJ 159. Choose the correct answer. What substances in cells regulate the speed of formation of complex organic compounds: A. vitamins B. enzymes C. antibodies D. proteins 160. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are included in the chlorophyll molecule: A. Fe3+ B. Cu2+ C. Zn2+ D. Mg2+ 161. Choose the correct answer. What is the chemical element related to microelements: A. О2 (oxygen) B. Р (phosphorus) C. H (hydrogen) D. С (carbon) G. N (nitrogen) 162. Choose the correct answer. What substance is related to hexoses: A. ribose B. fructose C. lactic acid 163. Choose the correct answer. What substance is related to trioses: A. ribose B. sucrose C. lactic acid D. fructose G. lactose 164. Choose the correct answer. What substance is related to trioses: A. pyruvic acid B. ribose C. sucrose D. fructose 165. Choose the correct answer. What substance is classified as structural polysaccharides: A. ribose B. sucrose C. starch D. lactose G. cellulose 166. Choose the correct answer. Which group of biopolymers includes glycogen to: A. to monosaccharides B. to oligosaccharides C. to polysaccharides D. to proteins 167. Choose the correct answer. Which carbohydrates are belongs to pentoses: A. deoxyribose B. sucrose C. fructose D. mannose 168. Choose the correct answer. How many carbon atoms are included in the deoxyribose: A. three B. four C. five D. six 169. Choose the correct answer. What is the function of the water in the cell associated with biopolymers: A. of solvent B. cell turgor C. colloidal properties of the cytoplasm D. isolation of substances 170. Choose the correct answer. Which carbohydrates are belongs to pentoses: A. ribose B. maltose C. sucrose D. fructose G. mannose 171. Choose the correct answer. Which ions are providing the permeability of cell membranes: A. Ca2+, Cu2+ B. Na+, K+, Cl- C. Zn2+, Mg2+ 172. Choose the correct answer. Where is the formation of spherosomes:     A. in mesoplasm B. on the extended sides of EPS tanks     C. on the extended sides of the Golgi complex tanks     D. in mitochondria 173. Choose the correct answer. Chlorophyll in the cell is located in:     A. stroma of the chloroplast     B. in the internal space of thylakoids   C. in photosynthetic membranes of thylakoids 174. Choose the correct answer. In the stroma of the chloroplast processes occur:     A. ATP synthesis    B. carbohydrate synthesis     C. accumulation of protons of hydrogen     D. protein synthesis 175. Choose the correct answer. Excretory inclusions include:     A. starch     B. inulin     C. aleurone grains   D. calcium oxalate crystals 176. Choose three correct answers. Secondary starch accumulates:     A. in the leaves   B. in the seeds     C. in chloroplasts   D. in the fruit   G. in the roots 177. Choose the correct answer. Which of the fatty oils is in solid state:     A. hemp oil     B. flaxseed oil   C. cacao oil     D. almond oil 178. Choose two correct answers. Inulin, unlike starch:     A. disaccharide B. polysaccharide     C. is in cells in an undissolved state   D. is in cells in a dissolved state 179. Choose the correct answer. In plant cells in large quantities contain:     A. albumins     B. prolamins   C. globulins 180. Choose three correct answers. Which of the essential oils are not drying:     A. flaxseed oil     B. hemp oil   C. olive oil   D. apricot oil   G. almond oil 181. Choose the correct answer. Saponification of fatty oils occurs when:     A. their interaction with acids     B. their interaction with alcohols   C. their interaction with alkalis 182. Choose the correct answers. The physical properties of the cell wall are:   A. strength   B. elasticity    C. mechanical protection of the protoplast   D. intercellular interactions 183. Choose the correct answer. The submicroscopic structure of the cell wall is represented by:     A. microtubules and microfilaments     B. matrix and microtubules     C. microfibrils and microtubules D. matrix and microfibrils 184. Choose the correct answer. Under the maceration understand the process:     A. the formation of the primary cell wall B. separation of the walls of neighboring cells, as a result of the destruction of the middle plate     C. the process of education intercellular spaces     D. the formation of the secondary wall 185. Choose the correct answer. When lignification in the cell wall is deposited:     A. kutin     B. suberin    C. lignin     D. chitin 186. Choose two correct answers. With the help of plasmodesma carried out:   A. contact between cells B. the movement of substances from the cell to the cell     C. transmission of nerve impulses     D. cell division 187. Choose the correct answer. The caged cells in the cell wall contain:     A. lignin     B. wax     C. pectin     D. kutin G. suberin 188. Choose the correct answer. The primary wall of the cell wall contains water:   A. 60-90%     B. 20-30%     C. 40-50%     D.10-20% 189. Choose the correct answer. The secondary membrane of the cell wall performs the function in cells:     A. educational B. mechanical     C. conducting     D. receptor 190. Choose the correct answer. In the composition of the primary cell wall is present: A. plenty of water and up to 10% cellulose     B. a lot of pulp and little water     C. equal amount of water and pulp,     D. up to 90% cellulose 191. Choose the correct answer. Рlant cells are connected through:     A. adhesive contact     B. synaptic contact С. plasmodesma 192. Choose the correct answer. The corkiness, or suberimidate is the result: A. accumulation in the matrix of a large amount of minerals B. deposits on the inner side of the cell wall of hydrophobic polymers C. deposition of amorphous, highly hydrated acidic polysaccharides in the form of gums, close in chemical nature to pectin substances D. deposits on the outer side of the cell wall of hydrophilic polymers 193. Choose the correct answer. Mineralization is a process: A. deposits in the matrix of a large number of minerals, most often silica (silicon oxide), rarely oxalate and calcium carbonate B. deposits on the inner side of the cell wall of hydrophobic polymers C. deposition of amorphous, highly hydrated acidic polysaccharides in the form of gums, close in chemical nature to pectin substances. D. deposits on the outer side of the cell wall of hydrophilic polymers 194. Choose the correct answer. The polysaccharides of the matrix glycoprotein of the wall, lignin and mucilage are formed: A. in plasmolemma B. in the Golgi complex C. in mitochondria D. in lisosomes 195. Choose the correct answer. The walls of dividing and growing cells, which contain a lot of water, called: A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 196. Choose the correct answer. Plasmodesmae occur in cells:     A. animals cells   B. vegetable cells     C. mushroom cells 197. Choose the correct answer. Through plazmodesm the protoplasts of cells in plant body form a unit called .... A. Simplast B. Protoplast C. Hyaloplasm 198. Choose the correct answer. The similarity of plant and animal cells is available: A. plasmalemma, cytoplasm and nucleus B. vacuoles with cell sap C. cell wall D. cores and centrioles 199. Choose the correct answer. The similarity of plant cells and bacteria is available: A. plasmalemma B. cores C. mitochondria D. vacuoles 200. Choose the correct answer. The term "cell" suggested: A. R. Guk B. L. Leeuwenguk C. R. Brown D. M. Schleiden 201. Choose the correct answer. Рlant cells has: A. autotrophic type of food B. heterotrophic type of food C. mixotrophic type of food 202. Choose the correct answer. In 1839, cell theory was formulated: A. T. Schwann and M. Schleiden B. T. Schwann, M. Schleiden and D. Virchow C. R. Hooke and L. Leeuwenhoek D. M. Schleiden and D. Virchow 203. Choose the correct answer. Basic cell types: A. structural and generative B. somatic and generative C. tissue, nervous and generative D. tissue and sex 204. Choose the correct answer. Which of the scientists discovered the cell nucleus: A. T. Schwann B. R. Brown C. L. Leeuwenguk 205. Set the correct sequence: Evolutionary levels of living: 1) cellular, 2) biogeocenotic, 3) ontogenetic, 4) molecular-genetic, 5) population-specific; 6) biosphere A. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3, 6 B. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6 C. 6, 1, 3, 2, 5, 2 D. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4, 6 206. Choose the correct answer. An important addition to the cell theory that “every cell comes from a different cell,” was made in 1858: A. M. Schleiden B. D Mendel C. T. Schwann D. R. Virchow 207. Choose the correct answer. In which year the cell was opened: A. 1884 B. 1839 C. 1665 D. 1802 208. Choose the correct answer. What is the subject of study on the ontogenetic level of organization of the living: A. tissue B. cell C. organism D. population 209. Choose the correct answer. The elementary phenomenon at the population-species level of the organization of the living is: A. population B. metabolism and energy C. DNA reduplication D. change in gene pool 210. Choose the correct answer. Lysosomes contains: A. oxidoreductases B. set of nucleic acids C. glycogen D. hydrolases 211. Choose three correct answers. In the prokaryotic cell are missing: A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. cell center D. cell wall 212. Choose two correct answers. The modern hypothesis of the origin of eukaryotic cells is: A. complication of the structure of ancestral prokaryotic cells B. hypothesis of endosymbiosis C. invagination hypothesis D. abiotic theory 213. Choose the correct answer. What level of organization of wildlife is a combination of all the ecosystems of the globe in their relationship: A. biogeocenotic B. ecosystem C. biosphere D. population-specific 214. Choose the correct answer. The compound that plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure in the cell is: A. protein B. ATP C. sodium chloride D. lipids 215. Choose the correct answer. The structural parts of the core are: A. nuclear envelope and nuclear matrix B. nuclear membrane, nuclear matrix and chromatin C. nuclear envelope, chromatin, nucleolus and nucleoplasm 216.Choose the correct answer. Chromatin is: A. haploid set of chromosomes B. intensely stained part of the chromosome C. unpainted part of the chromosome 217. Choose the correct answer. What forms lack cytoskeleton: A. in eukaryotic cells B. in blue-green algae and bacteria C. in plant cells D. in animal cells 218. Choose the correct answer. What substance is included in the composition of the cell wall only in bacteria: A. lipids B. glycocalix C. mureic acid D. proteins 219. Choose the correct answer. What is the reason for the two membrane structure in mitochondria and plastids: A. with the presence of ribosomes B. with protein synthesis C. with the presence of its own DNA D. with their functions 220. Choose the correct answer. The capture of substances from the extracellular space by invagination by the outer cell membrane is called: A. endocytosis B. exocytosis C. diffusion D. osmosis 221. Choose the correct answer. The tertiary structure of the protein is formed by: A. peptide bonds B. sulfhydryl bonds C. hydrogen bonds D. covalent bonds 223. Choose the correct answer. The synthetic period is characterized by: A. Part of the cycle, when the cell does not divide and performs its specific functions B. DNA reduplication C. growth of a divided cell, preparation for DNA synthesis D. cell accumulation of the energy of protein synthesis in the mitotic apparatus 224. Choose the correct answer. The post-synthetic period is characterized by: A. Part of the cycle, when the cell does not divide and performs its specific functions B. DNA reduplication C. growth of a divided cell, preparation for DNA synthesis D. cell accumulation of the energy of protein synthesis in the mitotic apparatus 225. Choose the correct answer. DNA replication occurs: A. in the presynthetic period B. in the postsynthetic period C. in the synthetic period D. in mitosis 226. Choose the correct answer. The nucleus in the plant cell performs the functions of: A. storage of genetic information B. storage and transfer of genetic information C. participates in protein biosynthesis 227. Choose the correct answer. In the postmitotic (G1) period of the cell cycle occurs: A. division of chromosomes into daughter chromatids B. DNA reduplication C. preparation for DNA synthesis D. nuclei formation of daughter cells G. cytokinesis 228. Choose the correct answer. The functions of the nuclear membrane: A. separation of cytoplasm B. protein synthesis C. regulation of the interaction of the nucleus and cytoplasm 229. Choose the correct answer. Liposome is: A. A type of lysosome B. kind of peroxidazosome C. part of glycocalyx D. artificially created structure 230. Choose four correct answers. The mitotic cycle of the cell includes: A. post-synthetic period B. synthetic period C. presynthetic period D. stage of differentiation G. mitosis 231. Choose the correct answer. The monomers of nucleic acids are: A. amino acids B. nucleotides C. nitrogenous bases D. Monosaccharides and nitrogenous bases 232. Choose three correct answers. The biological significance of mitosis is: A. in maintaining the constancy of the karyotype in somatic cells B. in creating genetic diversity C. in the implementation of the processes of regeneration and growth D. in providing asexual reproduction 233. Choose the correct answer. To maintain the initial set of chromosomes in mitosis anaphase to the poles diverge: A. Whole chromosomes B. chromatids C. tetrade D. bivalents 234. Choose the correct answer. Globule formation is characteristic of protein structure: A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 235. Choose the correct answer. Spiraling chromosomes, centriole divergence and dissolution of the nuclear envelope occur in: A. metaphase B. prophase C. anaphase D. prometaphase 236. Choose the correct answer. In the process of mitosis, in contrast to meiosis, are formed: A. female gametes B. somatic cells C. zygote D. male gametes 237. Choose the correct answer. Starch refers to: A. monosaccharides B. oligosaccharides C. polysaccharides D. lipids 238. Choose three correct answers. In the prokaryotic cell are missing: A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. cell center D. ribosomes 239. Choose the correct answer. Renaturation is not possible with the destruction of the protein structure: A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. quaternary 240. Choose the correct answer. Primary lysosomes are formed from: A. EPS B. Golgi complex C. by self-duplication D. the outer cell membrane 241. Choose the correct answer. Intercellular spaces are characterized by:     A. only for growing cells B. only for mature cells     C. for old cells 242. Choose the correct answer. Chemical nature of mucus and gums:     A. lipids     B. squirrels     C. a mixture of terpenoids and tannins   D. polysaccharides  243. Choose the correct answer. Intercellular cells improve:     A. height     B. food   C. gas exchange     D. breathing 244. Choose the correct answer. Oxidation processes occur in cellular organelles:      A. in ribosomes      B. in EPS      C. in chloroplasts   D. in mitochondria and chloroplasts 245. Choose the correct answers. Name the main function of spherosomes:      A. ATP synthesis      B. synthesis and accumulation of proteins C. synthesis and accumulation of fat      G. the formation of primary lysosomes  246. Choose the correct answer. The component of the mitotic apparatus of a eukaryotic cell is: A. microfilaments B. myosin fibers C. microtubules D. myofibrils 247. Choose the correct answer. Where in a eukaryotic cell transcription takes place: A. in the core B. in the cytoplasm C. in the Golgi complex D. on the membranes of the granular endoplasmic reticulum 248. Choose the correct answer. Which of these phases completes mitosis: A. anaphase B. prophase C. metaphase D. telophase 249. Choose the correct answer. Preservation of the diploid set of chromosomes as a result of cell division provides: A. mitosis B. meiosis C. endomitosis 250. Choose the correct answer. The biological significance of mitosis is: A. in the formation of gametes B. in the implementation of the processes of regeneration and growth C. in creating genetic diversity 251. Choose the correct answer. In anaphase of mitosis to the poles diverge: A. whole chromosomes B. chromatids C. tetrads 252. Choose the correct answer. The cell center in the process of mitosis responds: A. for the biosynthesis of tubulin proteins B. for the spiralization of chromosomes C. for moving the cytoplasm D. for the formation of the spindle division 253. Choose the correct answer. What process ensures the preservation of a constant number of chromosomes in the cells during reproduction: A. meiotic division B. movement of cytoplasm C. mitotic division D. spermatogenesis 254. Choose two correct answers. When asexual reproduction: A. offspring represents genetic copies of the parents B. there is a genetic diversity of the descendants C. the cellular mechanism is meiosis D. material is supplied mainly for stabilizing selection 255. Choose the correct answer. Preservation of a constant number of chromosomes in the cells during vegetative reproduction is provided by: A. meiotic division B. movement of the cytoplasm C. mitotic division D. spermatogenesis II. Tissues and organs. 256. Choose the correct answer. Tissue is: A. A group of cells located nearby in the body of the plant B. A group of cells that have a similar structure, but a different origin and performing different functions C. system of cells that form a given organ of the plant D. a group of cells with a similar structure, common origin and performing the same function 257. Choose two correct answers. What scientists first described plant tissue: A. R. Guk B. L. Leeuwenhoek C. M. Malpighi D. R. Grew G. R. Brown 258. Choose the correct answer. Signs of higher plants: A. the body is not differentiated into organs B. the body is differentiated into tissues and organs, the presence of multicellular organs of sexual reproduction C. the dismemberment of the body into organs, organs of sexual reproduction, both unicellular and multicellular 259. Choose the correct answer. Plant tissue may consist of: A. only from cells of the same type B. only from cells of different types C. from cells of the same or different types 260. Choose two correct answers. Apical meristem is located: A. at the top of the stem B. on the tip of the root C. at the tip of the leaves D. at the base of internodes 261. Choose the correct answer. Can plant tissue change its function with age? A. yes B. no C. sometimes 262. Choose the correct answer. Which of the following conducts water and minerals: A. sieve tubes B. tree vessels C. bast fibers D. cambium 263. Choose the correct answer. Epidermis develops from: A. lateral meristem B. interstitial meristem C. apical meristem D. from the secondary meristem 264. Choose three correct answers. The epidermis can perform the following functions: A. gives strength to organs B. protection against mechanical stress C. regulation of gas exchange and transpiration D. the selection of by products of metabolism 265. Choose two correct answers. A feature of the epidermis is the fact that: A. consists of dead cells B. consists of living cells C. there is no intercellular substance D. intercellular substance is well pronounced 266. Choose the correct answer. Which of the following is most characteristic of meristem cells? A. division C. carrying out chemical compounds in other tissues B. storage of nutrients D. photosynthesis and formation of carbohydrates 267. Choose the correct answer. Intercalary meristems are: A. on the sides of the roots and stems B. on the tips of the stems and roots C. at the base of young leaves and internodes D. formed at plant damage sites 268. Choose the correct statement: A. Meristematic tissues give rise to permanent tissues B. Meristematic tissue is involved in holding substances C. Meristematic tissues form a protective layer in the plant D. Meristematic tissue is involved in photosynthesis 269. Choose the correct answer. Are there extracellular cavities in meristematic tissue? A. yes, there are B. no intercellular cavities C. sometimes found 270. Choose the correct statement: A. Meristematic cells are packed closely together without intercellular cavities B. The meristematic cells are located loosely and have intercellular cavities C. Meristematic cells form a protective layer in plants 271. Choose the correct answer. The size of the meristematic cells: A. very large B. very small C. average D. the size is not defined 272. Choose the correct answer. What type of meristem is not there: A. apical B. intercalary C. assimilative D. lateral 273. Choose the correct answer. Xylem is developed in plants: A. in the leaves B. in the stems C. in the roots D. in all of the above parts 274. Choose the correct answer. Cover tissues are composed of cells: A. collenchyma B. sclerenchyma C. floema D. epidermis 275. Choose the correct answer. Cover tissues perform the function: A. carried nutrient transport B. provides a protective barrier against mechanical damage and infection C. in the cells of this tissue is photosynthesis D. provides constant plant growth in length and width 276. Choose the correct answer. What cells increase water absorption and regulate transpiration: A. collenchyma B. epidermis C. periderm D. meristems 277. Choose the correct answer. What are the cells that have dense protoplasts and produce various substances, such as essential oils, resins and mucus: A. glandular cells B. glandular hairs C. hydathode D. phellogen 278. Choose two correct answers. Tissue is a complex of cells: A. similar in origin B. different in origin C. similar in structure D. different in structure 279. Choose the correct answer. The vegetative organs of the plant include: A. sprout and root B. shoot and fruit C. flower and fruit 280. Choose the correct answer. The composition of the escape organs: A. flower and fruit B. stem with leaves and buds C. stalk and root 281. Choose the correct answer. Who first introduced the concept of parenchyma: A.T. Schwann and M. Schleiden B. R. Guk and L. Leeuwenhoek C. M. Malpighi and R. Grew D. R. Guk and R. Brown 282. Choose the correct answer. Simple tissue consists of: A. heterogeneous elements that perform different functions B. homogeneous elements that perform the same function C. homogeneous elements that perform different functions 283. Choose the correct answer. The connection between the dead cells in the tissue is through: A. mechanical connection B. nexus B. plasmodesma G. desmosomes 284. Choose the correct answer. Undifferentiated tissues include: A. mechanical tissues B. covering tissues C. meristematic tissues D. vascular tissue 285. Choose the correct answer. The stalk of Monocotyledons plants can grow in thickness only in the first months of a plant’s life, because: A. these plants do not live long B. they have no cambium C. they do not form a multilayer periderm 286. Choose the correct answer. For plants of dry habitats are characteristic: A. large leaves and dense pubescence B. small leaves and a large number of stomata C. large number of stomata and wax on the leaves D. wax coating on the leaves and small leaves 287. Choose the correct answer. To cover tissues include: A. epidermis B. xylem C. phloem D. hydatods 288. Choose the correct answer. The tissue, consisting of xylem and phloem, called: A. mechanical tissues B. covering tissues C. meristematic tissues D. vascular tissue 289. Choose the correct answer. The cells of the epidermis are:     A. hydatods B. trichomes     С. nectaries 290. Choose the correct answer. The type of tissue that transports dissolved nutrients in all directions to the plant is called: A. epidermis B. intercalar meristem C. floema D. xylem 291. Choose the correct answer. Vascular tissue transports water and minerals called: A. xylem B. meristem C. floema D. periderm 292. Choose the correct answer. The main conducting vessels of xylem are: A. sieve tube elements B. tracheids and vessels C. phellogen 293. Choose the correct answer. The main conducting cells of phloem: A. sieve tube elements B. tracheids and vessels C. phellogen 294. Choose the correct answer. What's the name of cork cambium: A. sieve tube members B. tracheids and vessels C. phellogen 295. Choose the correct answer. In the formation and growth of the cell wall are involved: A. only protoplast B. protoplast and dictyosomes C. protoplast and phragmoplast D. protoplast, phragmoplast and dictyosomes 296. Choose the correct answer. The monomer ATP is: A. amino acid B. nucleoid C. nucleotide D. glucose 297. Choose two correct answers. Non-carbohydrate components of the cell wall are: A. lignin B. pectin C. cutin D. suberin 298. Choose the two correct answers. With the help of plasmodesma carried out: A. contact between cells B. the movement of substances from the cell to the cell C. transmission of nerve impulses D. cell division 299. Choose two correct answers. The shape of the channel distinguish pores: A. are simple B. mixed C. complex D. bordered 300. Choose the correct answer. The pores are called: A. holes in the primary and secondary membrane of the cell wall B. the areas where the primary wall is formed C. the finest cytoplasmic filaments that make the connection between cells D. holes in the secondary cell wall 301. Choose the two correct answers. To cover tissues include: A. periderm B. xylem C. phloem D. hydatods 302. Choose the correct answer. The epidermis develops from: A. lateral meristem B. interstitial meristem C. apical meristem 303. Choose two correct answers. A feature of the epidermis is that: A. consists of dead cells B. No extracellular substance C. consists of living cells D. intercellular substance well pronounced 304. Choose the correct answer. Water with minerals dissolved in it is carried out: A. sieve tubes B. companion cells C. vessels D. cambium 305. Choose the correct answer. What is not a function of xylem: A. carrying organic matter B. carrying out dissolved minerals C. holding water 306. Choose the correct answer. The cuticle is well developed: A. in plants growing in arid areas B. in plants growing in a humid climate C. cuticle thickness does not depend on environmental conditions D. in plants growing in water 307. Choose the correct answer. Antennae pea - it is modified: A. stipules B. leaflets of a complex leaf C. side shoots D. simple leaves 308. Choose the correct answer. Juicy scales in onion bulb is a modification:      A. root      B. stalk C. sheet 309. Choose the correct answer. The buds that are in the leaf axils and do not unfold for many years are called: A. lateral B. axillary C. wintering D. sleeping 310. Choose the correct answer. An escape capable of twisting around other plants or supports is called: A. ascending B. curly C. creeping D. climbing 311. Choose the correct answer. The plant's generative organs include:      A. sprout and root      B. shoot and fruit C. flower and seed 312. Choose the correct answer. The types of parenchyma (basic tissue) do not include: A. assimilation B. stocking C. pneumatic D. epidermal 313. Choose the correct answer. The tissue that provides resistance to static and dynamic loads is called: A. meristematic tissues B. vascular tissues C. mechanical tissues D. secretory tissues 314. Choose the correct answer. The glands of external secretion include: A. nectaries B. mlechnikov C. tracheids 315. Choose the correct answer. Not a characteristic feature of Dicotyledonous plants:      A. development of periderm      B. orderly arrangement of conductive beams      C. the presence of cambium   D. the presence of conductive beams of the closed type 316. Choose the correct answer. How many types of mechanical tissue are there? A. Two B. Three C. Five D. Eight 317. Choose the correct answer. Most monocotyledonous plants have a root system: А. The fibrous root system В. The taproot system C. The mixed system 318. Choose three correct answers. Intercalary meristems differ in that:      A. contain only undifferentiated elements      B. contain differentiated elements      C. have initial cells      D. initial cells are absent      G. can turn into permanent tissue 319. Choose the correct answer. What tissue can perform conductive functions:      A. parenchyma, collenchyma, sclerenchyma      B. meristem, periderm, xylem   C. xylem, phloem      D. bast fibers, cambium, pericycle 320. Choose the correct answer. Apical meristems ensure plant growth:      A. only in thickness  B. only in length      С. as in thickness and in length 321. Choose the correct answer. The movement of water and mineral salts from the roots to the leaves occurs through the conductive tissue, which consists of:      A. from living elongated cells with holes in transverse septa B. from hollow dead cells with lignified walls devoid of partitions      C. of young cells with thin membranes capable of dividing      D. from loosely located cells filled with chloroplasts 322. Choose the correct answer. In the life processes of the plant use organic substances that they:      A. absorb from the air      B. sucked from the soil      C. get from other organisms D. create themselves in the process of photosynthesis 323. Choose the correct answers. The stoma of the epidermis is closed:      A. in the daytime   B. at night time C. when photosynthesis stops      D. when photosynthesis occurs most intensely 324. Choose two correct answers. Where are the stomata of aquatic plants:      A. on both sides of the sheet      B. on the underside of the sheet there are more of them than on the top   C. only on the top of the sheet   D. may be missing 325. Choose the correct answer. Hydatods:      A. close at night      B. close during the day      C. open at night and close during the day   D. always open 326. Choose the correct answer. A lenticel perform the functions:      A. protective      B. conductin   C. gas exchange      D. stockpiling 327. Choose the correct answer. What is the photosynthetic organ in cactus:   A. stem      B. modified leaves      C. stipules 328. Choose the correct answer. What is the type of tissue that consists of dead cells with extremely thick cell walls (secondary walls): A. periderm B. collenchyma C. parenchyma D. sclerenchyma 329. Choose the correct answer. The tendrils of the grapes are modified:   A. modified stems      B. stipules      C. leaves 330. Choose the correct answer. The secretory tissue of internal secretion: A. hydathode B. mlechnikov C. tracheids 331. Choose the correct answer. An escape that grows horizontally is called:      A. ascending   B. creeping      C. climbing 332. Choose the correct answer. The highest respiration rates are:      A. seeds during dormancy B. young plants at the leaf unfolding stage      C. adult plants      D. ripe fruit 333. Choose the correct answer. By the type of leaf venation, it is possible to determine the belonging of a plant to:      A. family      B. species C. class      D. kingdom 334. Choose the correct answer. For monocotyledonous plants is not typical:      A. the number of parts of a flower is a multiple of three      B. parallel venation of leaves   C. presence of cambium      D. represented mainly by herbaceous plants 335.Choose the correct answer. The kidney is: A. sheet part B. part of the root C. rudimentary escape D. reproductive organ 336.Choose the correct answer. What breeding method is widely distributed in the wild and is actively used in crop production: A. fragmentation B. sexual reproduction C. vegetative reproduction D. heterosis 337. Choose the correct answer. Photosynthesis in the plant occurs: A. in fruits B. in leaves and stems C. in leaves, stems, and roots D. in leaves and flowers 338. Choose the correct answer. What chemical element activates some enzymes component of chlorophyll molecule: A. Сu B. Mn C. N D. Co 339. Choose the correct answer. What part of the plant is divided into nodes and internodes: A. Root B. Leaf blade C. Escape D. Stem 340. Choose the correct answer. Callus is formed from:      A. lateral meristem      B. interstitial meristem      C. apical meristem D. wound meristem 341. Choose the correct answer. The number of stomata on the leaves:      A. constantly      B. ranges from 5 to 10 per 1mm2      C. ranges from 100 to 300 per 1 mm2 342. Choose the correct answer. The modification of the leaves are not the antennae: A. grapes      B. pea      C. lentils 343. Choose two correct answers. What organs are similar in plants:   A. pea antennae   B. mustache cucumber     C. strawberry mustache 344. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the shoot, developing from the bud of the seed germ:     A. side escape B. main runaway     C. shortened escape     D. modified escape 345. Choose the correct answer. Why do plants in a hot climate has succulent leaves: A. get the required amount of oxygen B. they help conserve water C. they catch sunlight better D. they evaporate all the water 346. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the inner part of the sheet containing a lot of chloroplasts? A. xylem B. trichome C. mesophyll 347. Choose the correct answer. For the growth of root crops - beets, potatoes, the following trace elements are needed:     A. calcium and phosphorus B. sulfur and potassium     C. molybdenum     D. zinc and iron 348. Choose the correct answer. Root functions are not: A. Mineral and water nutrition (absorption of water and minerals) B. Fastening plants in soil C. It supports and holds the leaves, flowers, and fruits D. Synthesis of primary and secondary metabolism products 349. Choose the correct answer. In the absence of petiole leaves are called:   A. sessile      B. petiolate      С. stipules 350. Choose the correct answer. When the opposite arrangement of the sheet:   A. in a knot two leaves on opposite sides of the stem      B. in the node only one sheet      С. pairs of leaves are in mutually perpendicular planes      D. in a node of three sheets or more 351. Choose the correct answer. The growth and development of above-ground vegetative organs of plants affects:   A. nitrogen     B. potassium     C. phosphorus     D. calcium 352. Choose the correct answer. What plant tissue transports organic matter(e.g. sucrose, amino acids): A.epidermis B. stomata C.xylem D. phloem 353. Choose the correct answer. The rhizome of wheatgrass, lily of the valley and iris is: A. modified shoots     B. modified main roots     C. thickened lateral roots     D. root vegetables 354. Choose the correct answer. An escape with attachments to be held on supports or other plants is called:     A. ascending     B. creeping     C. climbing 355. Choose the correct answer. Root hairs are usually not longer:   A. 10 mm     B. 20 mm     С. 30 mm 356. Choose the correct answer. The suction zone, like other root zones:     A. constantly increasing in length B. constantly moving after the tip of the growing root and does not increase in length     С. does not move after the tip of the root and does not increase in length 357. Choose the correct answer. The strength and elasticity of the root provides:     A. integumentary tissue     B. conductive tissue C. mechanical tissue 358. Choose the correct answer. The process that forces the water absorbed from the soil to move through the roots and up the stem of a plant: A. сapillary action B. transpiration pull C. root pressure D. photosynthesis 359. Choose the correct answer. Carrot or beet root crop is formed: A. with the growth of the main root     B. with the growth of the main root and lower parts of the stem     C. with the growth of the lower parts of the stem 360. Choose two correct answers. Fibrous root system typical for:   A. plantain     B. beet     C. tomato    D. corn 361. Choose the correct answer. For the growth of leguminous plants (beans, peas) are necessary:     A. calcium and phosphorus     B. sulfur and potassium   C. molybdenum     D. zinc 362. Choose the correct answer. Of the plants mentioned below, the core root system is absent in:     A. dandelion     B. tomatoes C. corn 363. Choose the correct answer. Adventitious roots of the plants develop:     A. only at the main root     B. only on the lateral roots     C. only on the lower part of the stem D. from the shoot, and from the leaf 364. Choose the correct answer. What part of the spectrum of visible light is used for photosynthesis:     A. green    B. red and blue     C. orange and purple     D. yellow and green 365. Choose the correct answer. The reaction of organisms to the duration of daylight is called:     A. biological rhythm     B. biological clock     C. phototropism D. photoperiodism 366. Choose the correct answer. It does not apply to light-loving plants:     A. feather grass     B. camel thorn   C. fern     D. wheat 367. Choose the correct answer. How does the light intensity increase affect the transpiration rate: A.speed increases B. speed decreases C. not change D.transpiration stops 368. Choose the correct answer. Spores of higher plants always:   A. haploid     B. diploid     C. triploid 369. Choose the correct answer. What phenomenon was discovered by Charles Darwin and his son: A. phototaxis B. phototropism C. photoperiodism 370. Choose the correct answer. Sexual reproduction is considered an aromorphosis because it:     A. translates most genes into a homozygous state B. increases genetic diversity     С. increases the proportion of heterotic individual 371. Choose the correct answer. Some plants in culture reproduce only by cuttings, which allows:     A. get more planting material than seed propagation     B. get a more viable generation     C. get plants with new signs D. retain signs of variety 372. Mark the wrong answer. Vaccinations are used for plant propagation, as:     A. it is a faster way than growing from seed     B. while maintaining the desired set of genetic traits C. the resulting plants combine the genetic traits of both parents 373. Choose the correct answer. What parts of the plant can be called escape:     A. the area of the stem between the two nodes     B. leaf begonias with adventitious roots     C. tendril of peas   D. stalk with a few leaves on it 374. Choose the correct answer. The emergence of plants on land was evolutionarily associated with the improvement of:     A. only mechanical tissue     B. оnly conductive tissue    С. reproduction processes, conductive and mechanical tissues 375. Choose the correct answer. The main direction in the evolution of land plants was:     A. morphological simplification of the haploid stage     B. morphological simplification of the asexual stage     С. morphological complication gametophyte 376. Choose the correct answer. The gametophyte stage in the life cycle of plants results from:     A. fertilization of the egg by sperm     B. mitotic division of sporophyte cells C. development of haploid spores, which is divided mitotically 377. Choose the correct answer. Of the following plants are propagated by spores:     A. gymnosperms     B. mosses, ferns C. flowering plants 378. Choose the correct answer. The plant to be grafted is called:     A. stock B. graft     C. undergrowth     D. sapling 379. Choose the correct answer. Determine the correct way to move water in the root:     A. Bark cells - vessels - root hair - stem and leaves     B. root hair - vessels - bark cells - stem and leaves C. root hair - cells of the cortex - vessels - stem and leaves 380. Choose the correct answer. Nitrogen and potash fertilizers, in contrast to phosphate fertilizers, are applied to the soil in spring, since:     A. they slowly dissolve in soil moisture B. they quickly dissolve in soil moisture     C. plants need these fertilizers in the spring     D. These fertilizers can not be stored for a long time 381. Choose the correct answer. Carrots, beets, turnips develop:     A. all kinds of roots   B. only main root     C. main and lateral roots 382. Choose the correct answer. Lateral roots develop:   A. only at the main root     B. only on adventitious roots     С. as on the main, and on adventitious roots 383. Choose the correct answer. Adventitious roots are formed:     A. only at the main root     B. only on the lower part of the stem C. both on the stem and on the leaves 384. Choose the correct answer. Root division cells:     A. small, located loosely B. small, tight to each other     С. large, rounded 385. Choose the correct answer. Root hairs live: A. 15-20 days     B. 5-6 days     С. for about a day 386. Choose the correct answer. The formation of specialized cells that serve for their reproduction and resettlement in a number of plants and fungi provides the process:     A. fragmentation     B. budding  C. sporulation     D. gametogenesis 387. Choose the correct answer. The physiological role of sap flow is to:     A. excretion of excess water     B. release of excess mineral salts   C. transport of sugars and other substances to the kidneys 388. Choose the correct answer. Breathe most intensely:     A. dry seeds   B. germinating seeds     C. plant roots     D. plant leaves 389. Choose the correct answer. In higher plants develop from the zygote:   A. sexual generation with anteridy and archegonia     B. asexual generation with sporangia     C. overgrown 390. Choose the correct answer. What plants reproduce by seed:     A. mosses, horsetails     B. moons, ferns     C. gymnosperms, tails   D. gymnosperms, angiosperms 391. Choose the correct answer. Vegetative reproduction is carried out:     A. using a dispute     B. using gametes   C. with the help of plant organs and their modifications 392. Choose the correct answer. What compound accumulates in plant tissue:     A. calcium sulphate     B. ferric chloride     C. potassium oxalate   D. calcium oxalate 393. Choose the correct answer. Application of excess fertilizer to the soil can lead to: A. the accumulation of nitrates in the soil     B. change the color of the soil     C. soil compaction     D. soil destruction 394. Choose the correct answer. Humus in mineral salts convert:     A. nodule bacteria   B. soil bacteria     C. pathogenic bacteria 395. Choose the correct answer. With the lack of a trace element, leaves are falling or mosaic blotch appears:     A. potassium    B. boron     C. phosphorus     D. magnesium 396. Choose the correct answer. The formation of new cells and the growth of the stem in thickness provides:     A. traffic jam   B. cambium     C. wood     D. lub 397. Choose the correct answer. Which angiosperm cells do not have nuclei in a mature state:     A. cells of the epidermis   B. sieve tubes of phloem     C. cells of the main leaf tissue 398. Choose the correct answer. In the life processes of the plant use organic substances that they:     A. absorb from the air     B. sucked from the soil     C. get from other organisms   D. create themselves in the process of photosynthesis 399. Choose the correct answer. Organic matter is moved by:     A. cambium   B. lub     С. wood     В. core 400. Сhoose the correct answer. For the growth of root crops (beets, potatoes) the following trace elements are needed:     A. calcium and phosphorus   B. sulfur and potassium     С. molybdenum     D. zinc and iron 401. Choose the correct answers. What tissue conducts water and dissolved mineral ions from the roots to the top of the plant? A. epidermis B. stomata C. xylem D. phloem 402. Choose the correct answer. What is included in phloem? A. tracheids B. parenchyma C. fibres D. sieve tubes 403. Choose the correct answer. The process of water loss from plants to the atmosphere as a result of evaporation, through stomata in the leaves, through the cuticle or lentils is called: A.Guttation B.Transcription C.Transpiration D.Photosynthesis 404. Choose the correct answer. Transpiration and photosynthesis occur more intensively: A. constantly B. in the daytime C. during the night 405. Choose the correct answer. How does the increase in relative humidity affect the rate of transpiration: A.speed increases B. the speed reduced C. not change D.transpiration stops 406. Choose the correct answer. Plant growth regulators: A.auxins B.gibberellins C.cytokinins D. abscisic acid 407. Choose the correct answer. What is the phenomenon of apical domination? A. The growing apical bud in higher plants inhibits the growth of the lateral buds B. The growing apical bud in higher plants accelerates the growth of the lateral buds C. The growing lateral bud in higher plants inhibits the growth of the apical buds 408. Choose the correct answer. What substance is a gaseous regulator of plant growth? A. auxins B. еthylene C. cytokinins D. abscisic acid 409. Choose the correct answer. Spinach, radish, hibiscus belongs to the plant A. Long Day Plants B. Short Day Plants C. Day Neutral Plants D. Early ripening plants 410. Choose the correct answer. Tomatoes, pea plants, rose belongs to the plant A. Long Day Plants B. Short Day Plants C. Day Neutral Plants D. Early ripening plants 411. Choose the correct answer. Lub vein is:     A. part of the underlying tissue B. part of the conductive beam, consisting of sieve tubes     С. part of the conductive beam, consisting of woody vessels     D. part of the conductive beam, consisting of bast fibers 412. Choose the correct answer. From the flower is formed:     A. escape     B. receptacle     C. generative kidney   D. fruit with seeds 413. Choose the correct answer. In higher plants, zygotes develop:     A. the sexual generation with antheridia and archegonia B. asexual generation with sporangia     C. overgrown 414. Choose the correct answer. Fruit ripening is stimulated:     A. auksinom    B. ethylene     C. cytokinin     D. interferon 415. Choose the correct answer. The rate of water absorption by the root depends on:     A. soil composition     B. watering time   C. water temperatures     D. soil color 416. Choose the correct answer. On marshy soils, plants grow poorly, as in them:     A. little mineral salts     B. the soil is very dense     C. little humus and a lot of mineral salt, D. little ai. 417. Choose the correct answer. Due to excessive watering, plants can die due to:     A. soil compaction     B. leaching of mineral salts     C. leaching of organic matter D. lack of oxygen for respiration of the roots 418. Choose the correct answer. The flowering and fruiting of plants are affected by:     A. nitrogen     B. potassium   C. phosphorus     D. calcium III. Systematics of plant 419. Choose the correct answer. In the systematics of plants there is no department:     A. mossy B. dicotyledons     C. flower     D. gymnosperms 420. Choose the correct answer. A plant population characterized by a similar genotype and phenotype, obtained by artificial selection is:     A. species     B. subspecies     C. breed   D. grade 421. Choose the correct answer. The main feature of the division of angiosperms into classes is the structure:     A. flower     B. fetus C. seed     D. stalk 422. Choose the correct answer. Plants of which department are currently dominant on Earth:     A. ferns     B. algae     C. gymnasium D. angiosperms     G. lepidiform 423. Choose the correct answer. Flowering plants are called angiosperms, because they have:     A. there are seeds     B. has stamens and pistils     C. is the fruit D. the seeds are protected by the pericarp 424. Choose the correct answer. The most ancient group of plants:     A. mosses   B. seaweed     C. angiosperms     D. ferns     G. gymnosperms 425. Choose the correct answer. Angiospermous plants appeared around:     A. 200 million years ago     B. 300 million years ago C. 130 million years ago     D. 60 million years ago 426. Choose the correct answer. The value of the works of C. Linnaeus is that he:     A. created an evolutionary theory   B. described 1,200 genera and over 8,000 plant species     C. defined the criteria of the form     D. created the evolutionary system of the organic world 427. Choose the correct answer. The value of the works of C. Linnaeus is that he:    A. created an evolutionary theory B. introduced the binary nomenclature    С. defined the criteria of the form 428. Choose the correct answer. J.B. Lamarck, in contrast to C. Linnaeus:     A. correctly identified the driving forces of evolution   B. recognized the variability of species     С. developed a system of plant world     D. created a system of wildlife 429. Choose the correct answer. What is panmixia:     A. similarity in structure     B. ability to produce fertile offspring   C. ability to cross freely 430. Choose the correct answer. What science studies the diversity of organisms and unites them into groups based on kinship:     A. morphology     B. ecology C. systematics     D. botany 431. Choose the correct answer. Related plant species are combined in:     A. kingdom B. genus     C. family     D. classes 432. Choose the correct answer. A group of similar individuals that interbreed and give rise to fertile offspring are:     A. genus   B. species     C. type     D. class 433. Choose the correct answer. The collection of all stamens of one flower is called: A. androcem     B. microsporophylls     C. megasporofills 434. Choose the correct answer. Pollination of flowers with the help of the wind is called:     A. hydrophilia     B. entomophilia     C. ornithophilia   D. anemophilia 435. Choose the correct answer. Pollinating flowers with insects is called:     A. hydrophilia     B. entomophilia     С. ornithophilia D. anemophilia 436. Choose the correct answer. Pollination of flowers with water is called: A. hydrophilia     B. entomophilia     С. ornithophilia D. anemophilia 437. Choose the correct answer. Pollinating flowers with birds is called: A. hydrophilia     B. entomophilia   С. ornithophilia D. anemophilia 438.Choose the correct answer. The formation of specialized cells that serve for reproduction and settlement in a number of plants and fungi provides the process:     A. fragmentation     B. budding C. sporulation     D. gametogenesis 439. Choose the correct answer. Gametophyte in the life cycle of plants is:     A. a modified leaf on which gametes are formed     B. plants developing as a result of gamete fusion   C. plants that form gametes 440. Choose the correct answer. Gametophyte serves: A. for the formation of germ cells     B. for the formation of a dispute     C. does not perform any of the listed functions 441. Choose the correct answer. What is the limiting factor in the development cycle of spore plants:     A. air   B. water     C. temperature 442. Choose the correct answer. Pestle in the flowers of plants: A. always has ovary, stigma and post     B. may not have a column     C. may not have a stigma 443. Choose the correct answer. The vegetative organs of angiosperms include: A. sprout and root     B. shoot and fruit     C. flower and fruit 444. Choose the correct answer. Scientific theory of the evolution of wildlife created:     A. Vavilov     B. Linney     C. Lamarck D. Darwin 445. Choose the correct answer. K. Linney is:     A. the founder of utilitarian systematics of plants     B. created an evolutionary system C. the founder of an artificial system of plants and animals     D. founder of the scientific theory of the evolution of wildlife 446. Choose the correct answer. Angiosperms originated from:     A. ferns     B. horsetails     C. mosses   D. ancient gymnosperms 447. Choose the correct answer. The youngest group of plants on Earth is:     A. gymnosperms B. angiosperms     C. ferns     D. psilophytes     G. horsetails 448. Choose the correct answer. Angiosperms have occupied a dominant position on Earth, because:     A. are large in size     B. very diverse  + C. their reproduction is not related to water     D. have a diverse root system 449. Choose the correct answer. The generative organ - the flower is available for:     A. gymnosperms     B. ferns C. angiosperms     D. lepidiform 450. Choose the correct answer. The plants of the angiosperms department, unlike the gymnosperms, have:     A. seeds     B. leaves     C. conductive tissue   D. flower and fruit 451. Choose the correct answer. The ability of plants to interbreed and produce fertile offspring is the main feature: A. genus   B. species     C. type     D. class    452. Choose the correct answer. From which in the process of evolution the ovule was formed:     A. from zygote     B. from gametes     C. of gametangium   D. from sporangia 453. Choose the correct answer. The following features of the structure are observed in the bacterial cell: A. there are all membranous organelles B. all membrane organelles are absent C. only the endoplasmic reticulum is present D. there is only a linear DNA molecule 454. Choose the correct answer. Types - twins are called species:     A. living in the same environmental conditions     B. having the same number of chromosomes   C. having morphological similarity, but having a different set of chromosomes     D. able to interbreed and give fertile offspring 455. Choose the correct answer. The smallest systematic unit:     A. family     B. genus   C. species     D. class 456. Choose the correct answer. The largest systematic unit: A. class     B. genus     C. species     D. family 457. Choose the correct answer. Determine the correct sequence of systematic units:     A. class - genus - species - family   B. class - family - genus - species     C. family - class - genus - species     D. genus - family - class - species 458. Choose the correct answer. Define a specific name in the list:     A. dandelion     B. pine     C. clover   D. clover creeping 459. Choose the correct answer. Flowering plants have spread widely on Earth due to:     A. large size     B. photosynthesis C. seeds with a supply of nutrients     D. nutrition 460. Choose the correct answer. The most ancient are: A. Archaebacteria B. Saprotrophs С. Eubacteria 461. Choose the correct answer. What are spherical bacteria: A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Аutotrophic D. Spirilla 462. Choose the correct answer. How much of the visible light is used by plants for photosynthesis: A. green B. red and blue C. yellow and green D. purple and orange 463. Choose the two correct answers. It is a type of relation where both the organisms are benefited: A. parasitic B. symbiotic C. commensalism 464. Choose the correct answer. Bacteria, for the life of which oxygen is needed, called: A. autotrophic B. anaerobes C. aerobes D. facultative anaerobes 465. Choose the correct answer. As most of the time bacteria reproduce: A. they don't reproduce B. asexual way C. sexual way D. meiosis 466. Choose the correct answer. The bacteria that prepare their own food is called: A. Cyanobacteria B. Lactobacillus C. Escherichia coli 467. Choose the correct answer. bacteria that are in mutually beneficial relationships with other organisms are called: A. symbiotic В. parasitic C. autotrophic 468. Choose the correct answer. Bacteria that can exist without oxygen are called: A. аutotrophic B. аnaerobes C. аerobes D. facultative anaerobes 469. Choose the correct answer. What type of reproduction is most common in bacteria: A. gemmation B. schizogony C. binary division D. fragmentation 470. Choose the correct answer. What bacteria has a spiral shape: A. Vibrio cholerae B. Treponema pallidum C. Bacillus thuringenesis 471. Choose the correct answer. The relationship of photobiont and mycobiont in lichen: A. anabiosis B. symbiosis C. metabiosis D. parasitism 472. Choose the correct answer. Function of the lichen layer: A. aeration B. protective C. assimilating D. attachment to the substrate 473. Choose the correct answer. Lichen core function: A. aeration B. assimilation C. protective D. breeding 474. Choose the correct answer. Lichen classification is based on: A. sisthematic accessories phicobiont B. systematic affiliation of mycobiont C. life form D. anatomical structure 475. Choose the correct answer. The main method of lichen reproduction: A. sexual B. asexual C. vegetative 476. Choose the correct answer. Relationships between algae cells and fungal hyphae in lichen are called A. anabiosis B. symbiosis C. metabiosis D. parasitism 477. Choose the correct answer. Lichen science is called: A. botanist B. lichenology C. mycology D. algology 478. Choose the correct answer. The growth rate of lichen: A. 5 - 10 cm per year B. 5 - 7 mm per month C. 20 - 30 сm per year D. 1 cm per year 479. Choose the correct answer. What plants are an indicator of strong atmospheric pollution: A. gymnosperms B. angiosperms     C. ferns     D. lichen 480. Choose the correct answer. Lichens are an important component of biogeocenoses, since: A. photosynthesizing B. are "pioneers" C. participate in the mineralization of organic matter D. are "long-livers" 481. Choose the correct answer. How many lichen species are there: A. 25 species B. 2500 specie C. 25,000 species D. 2500000 species 482. Choose two correct answers. What is the function of mushrooms that are part of a lichen: A. protects algae from drying out and extreme temperatures B. supplies them with organic matter C. supplies them with water and mineral salts D. allows you to attach to the substrate 483. Choose the correct answer. What is useful algae for lichen: A. equips them with organic matter B. supplies them with water and mineral salts 484. Choose the correct answer. In some lichen thallus consists of several layers: A. homeomeric B. bushy C. heteromeric 485. Choose the correct answer. In some lichen are the algae evenly distributed throughout the entire thickness, distributed from the interlacing of hyphae of the fungi? A. homeomeric B. bushy C. heteromeric 486. Choose two correct answers. What is the ecological role of lichens in ecosystems: A. they are the first to settle in the most barren places of land B. they are the main plant raw materials for the manufacture of pharmaceuticals C. are used as bioindicators of environmental pollution 487. Choose the correct answer. What systematic group are the mushrooms: A. family B. class C. devision D. kingdom 488. Choose the correct answer. What organisms have fungi originated from? A. from mosses B. from bacteria C. different flagellates and algae D. from lichen 489. Choose two correct answers. Mushrooms have common characteristics with animals: A. autotrophic nutrition B. the presence of urea C. unlimited growth D. reserve product - glycogen 490. Choose the correct answer. The body of the fungus is: A. thallus B. mycelium С. fruit body D. escape 491. Choose the correct answer. Lower fungi are missing: A. mycelium B. septas C. hyphae D. cysts 492. Choose two correct answers. According to the way of feeding, mushrooms can be: A. parasites B. symbionts C. autotrophs D. saprotrophs 493. Choose the correct answer. How mushrooms can breed? A. only sexually B. only asexually С. only vegetative way D. sexual, asexual and vegetative way 494. Choose the correct answer. How many species of mushrooms are known in nature: A. 10,000 B. 60000 C. 120000 D. 200000 495. Choose two correct answers. Mushrooms have common characteristics with animals: A. method of nutrition by suction B. chitin in the cell wall of cells C. heterotrophic nutrition D. unlimited growth 496. Choose two correct answers. Vegetative breeding method: A. portions of the mycelium B. budding C. conidia D. zoospores 497. Choose the correct answer. Mucor mucedo is a representative of mushrooms, according to the way of feeding is: A. symbiote B. autotroph C. parasite D. saprotroph 498. Choose the correct answer. Which mushrooms of the Deuteromycota division are sources of industrial production of a number of antibiotics, enzymes and organic acids: A. Penicillium B. Fusarium D. Inonotus obliquus 499. Choose the correct answer. Chromatophore of Spirogyra: A. near-wall B. cup-shaped C. spiral wound D. in the form of an open peel 500. Choose the correct answer. Single-celled green algae does not include: A. Chlorella B. Chlamydomonas C. Ulotrix D. Pleurococcus 501. Choose the correct answer. The chromatophore of Ulotrix has the form: A. twisted tape B. reticulum C. unclosed ring D. he is missing 502. Choose the correct answer. The photosensitive eye is available at: A. Chlorella B. Chlamydomonas C. Ulotrix D. Spirogyra 503. Choose the correct answer. Only asexually multiplies: A. Chlorella B. Chlamydomonas C. Ulotrix D. Spirogyra 504. Choose the correct answer. The type of gametes during sexual reproduction of chlamydomonas is called: A. isogamy B. heterogamy C. oogamia D. oogamy and heterogamy 505. Choose the correct answer. How many zoospores form one cell of chlamydomonas during asexual reproduction: A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 4-8 506. Choose the correct answer. The alternation of asexual and sexual generations takes place in the life cycle: A. Ulotrix B. Spirogyra C. Chlamydomonas D. Laminaria 507. Choose the correct answer. For stationary green algae include: A. Chlorella B. Chlamydomonas C. Laminaria D. Sphagnum 508. Choose the correct answer. What type of food is typical for algae:     A. heterotrophic   B. phototrophic     C. chemotrophic 509. Choose the correct answer. What caused a variety of body color of algae:   A. adaptation to photosynthesis     B. attraction of animals     C. disguise     D. reproduction characteristics 510. Choose the correct answer. What is the function of air bubbles of some algae:     A. With their help, algae move     B. thanks to them, the algae do not sink in water   C. air bubbles keep algae near the surface of the water, where there is the possibility of maximum light capture 511. Choose the correct answer. Sexual reproduction of Chlamydomanad is carried out:   A. upon the occurrence of adverse conditions     B. in favorable conditions     C. in strict sequence sexual reproduction is replaced by asexual 512. Choose the correct answer. The life form of Ulotrix is:     A. unicellular organism     B. colony   C. filamentous multicellular alga 513. Choose the correct answer. Which of the algae forms vitamins A, B, C, K:     A. Chlamydomans   B. Chlorella     C. Ulotriks 514. Choose the correct answer. Filamentous algae include:     A. Chlamydomande     B. Chlorella   C. Ulotrix 515. Choose the correct answer. Under adverse conditions Spirogyra breeds:     A. copulation   B. conjugation     C. vegetatively 516. Choose the correct answer. Available in many brown and red algae rhizoids serve as organs: A. attachment to the substrate B. absorption of water and mineral salts dissolved in it C. attachment to the substrate and absorption of water and mineral and organic substances dissolved in it 517. Choose the correct answer. The largest accumulations of brown algae occur at depth:     A. up to 10m     B. up to 15m    C. from 40 - 60m 518. Choose the correct answer. Green algae prevail at depth: A. 100m B. 10m C. at depths of more than 200m 519. Choose the correct answer. Does not have flagella, single-celled algae living in water and having a feed value: A. Chlamydomans B. Ulotrix C. Chlorella D. Laminaria 520. Choose the correct answer. Asexual reproduction of Chlamydomonas is carried out: A. cell division in half B. disputes without flagella C. zoospores D. fragmentation 521. Choose two correct answers. Algae are characterized by: A. large thalli B. complex development cycle C. the formation of a large number of spores D. the ability of photosynthesis at great depth 522. Choose two correct answers. Sexual reproduction is necessary for algae for: A. transferring adverse conditions B. recombination of genetic material C. maintaining the constancy of genetic material D. reduction of chromosome set 523. Choose two correct answers. For unicellular green algae include: A. Spirogyra B. Chlorella C. Ulotriks D. Chlamydomonas 524. Choose the correct answer. An example of unicellular flagellates is: A. Chlorococcus B. Chlamydomonas C. Cystococcus D. Spirogyra 525. Choose the correct answer. What is the function of Chlamydomanad contractile vacuoles: A. accumulation and storage of spare nutrients B. isolation of end products of metabolism into the environment C. excretion of excess water D. removal of undigested particles 526. Choose the correct answer. Filamentous green alga Ulotrix is found in: A. standing water bodies (ponds, lakes, reservoirs) B. in fast flowing rivers and flowing waters C. in the seas D. in the oceans 527. Choose the correct answer. From multicellular algae in the seas grow: A. only red algae B. only green algae C. only green and red algae D green, brown and red algae 528. Choose the correct answer. Red algae prevail at depths: A. 10m B. 100m C. up to 200m 529. Choose the correct answer. The limiting factor for the spread of green algae to great depths is: A. lack of oxygen B. lack of mineral nutrition C. a change in the spectrum of light reaching great depths D. low temperature 530. Choose the correct answer. Which of the algae in their cells accumulates iodine: A. Spirogyra B. Ulotrix C. Chlorella D. Laminaria 531. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle of Chlamydomonas, the diploid set of chromosomes have: A. themselves algae B. zoospores C. gametes D. wintering stages and zygote 532. Choose the correct answer. Spirogyra reproduced by: A. zoospores B. bicuspid gametes that merge C. conjugation, in which the protoplasts of two cells merge D. asexually 533. Choose two correct answer. Brown algae breed: A. using zoospores B. sexual way, in which gametes with two flagellums are involved C. asexually D. sexual way, in which the gametes without flagellums 534. Choose the correct answer. The body of the alga is called: A. thallus B. colony C. mycelium D. cell 535. Choose the correct answer. The Green Algae division includes: A. Spirogyra, Ulotrix B. Mukor, Penicillus C. Spirogyra, Penicillus 536. Choose the correct answer. The division of brown alga include: A. Nitella, Hara B. Spirogyra, Ulotrix C. Fucus, Laminaria 537. Choose the correct answer. An important feature used in the systematics of algae is the form: A. cells B. cores C. chloroplast D. mitochondria 538. Choose the correct answer. The thallus of red algae may have a coloring: A. bright red B. yellow C. bluish green D. any of the following 539. Choose two correct answers. The importance of algae in the biosphere is that they: A. create in reservoirs a reserve of organic substances as a result of photosynthesis B. absorb carbon dioxide from water and saturate it with oxygen C. emit into the atmosphere carbon dioxide, which is used by plants for photosynthesis D. absorb nitrogen from the air and enrich them with water 540. Choose the correct answer. The totality of all the pistils of one flower is called: A. androceum, B. gynecaleum C. microsporophylls D. megasporophylls 541. Choose the correct answer. The vegetative organs of Angiospermatophyta plants include: A. sprout and root B. shoot and fruit C. root and flower 542. Choose the correct answer. Gametophyte in the cycle of the development of moss is represented by:     A. spore box     B. sporangia with spores C. leafy plant     D. a box on a leg 543. Choose two correct answers. The function of sucking water and dissolved mineral salts in mosses is performed by: A. multicellular rhizoids     B. roots   C. surface of the vegetative body     D. All the answers are not correct 544. Choose the correct answers. The vegetative body of mosses consists of:     A. root system    B. only rhizoids    C. rhizoids, leaves and stalk 545. Choose the correct answer. The spores of the sparrow are formed on:   A. spikelet     B. the underside of the leaves     C. outgrowth     D. a modified part of the stem 546. Choose the correct answer. Which plants first appear root:    A. angiosperms    B. mosses C. leeches     D. gymnosperms 547. Choose the correct answer. Which organ is missing from moss:     A. stalk     B. leaf C. root     D. box 548. Choose the correct answer. What are the signs of mossy different from other plants:     A. in the process of development alternation of generations takes place     B. multiply by spores C. have stem and rhizoids     D. form organic matter in the process of photosynthesis 549. Choose two correct statements. What is the role of mosses in nature:   A. accumulate and retain water, causing waterlogging of the soil     B. are consuments in the ecosystem   C. promote peat formation 550. Choose the correct answer. Mosses are small because:     A. live in very humid places and are not able to use enough oxygen     B. nature of the soil on which they develop, is not able to provide the necessary amount of mineral substances C. do not have mechanical and conductive tissue 551. Choose the correct answer. Adult cuckoo flax plant is:     A. diploid gametophyte B. haploid gametophyte     C. haploid sporophyte     D. diploid sporophyte 552. Choose the correct answer. For fern is characterized by:     A. prevalence in the development cycle of gametophyte B. prevalence in the development cycle of the sporophyte     C. reduction of archegonia     D. education diploid dispute 553. Choose the correct answer. Fern meiosis occurs with:   A. the formation of a dispute     B. the formation of gametes     C. first division of zygote     D. sprouting spore 554. Choose the correct answer. In ferns:     A. gametophyte develops on sporophyte     B. sporophyte develops on gametophyte C. gametophyte and sporophyte exist independently of each other     D. sporophyte reduced 555. Choose the correct answer. In Dryopteris male gametophyte is:     A. adult plant   B. outgrowth     С. dispute     D. zygote 556. Choose the correct answer. What are the functions of fern leaves:     A. transpiration, gas exchange and reproduction     B. photosynthesis and reproduction C. sporulation 557. Choose the correct answer. In male ferns spores are formed:     A. in the cones     B. in spore-bearing spikelets     С. in a box   D. on the bottom surface of the sheet 558. Choose the correct answer. Potatoes, peas, beans, tomato is: A. Cross-pollinated plant B. self-pollinated plants C. Both cross-pollinated and self-pollinated plants D. dioecious plants 559. Choose the correct answer. Apple, cherry, strawberry are: A. Cross-pollinated plants B. self-pollinated plants C. Both cross-pollinated and self-pollinated plants D. dioecious plants 560. Choose the correct answer. Pestle in flowers of plants: A. always has an ovary, stigma and column B. may not have a column C. may not have stigma D. may not have a column 561. Choose the correct answers. What is the difference between higher plants and lower plants: A. gametophytes predominate in higher plants B. the body of higher plants is divided into organs (leaves, stems, roots) C. higher plants have rhizoids D. higher plants are composed of separate tissues 562. Choose the correct answer. The female reproductive organ of higher plants is called: A. egg cell B. antheridium С. arhegoniium D. oocyte 563. Choose the correct answer. Gametophyte in the cycle of the development of moss is represented by:     A. spore box     B. sporangia with spores C. leafy plant     D. a box on a leg 564. Choose the correct answer. The sporophyte in mosses is: A. moss thallus B. green part of the plant, consisting of leaves - blade C. box where the sporangium develops with spores D. sporophyte is missing 565. Choose the correct answer. What classes belong to the Bryophyta division: A. Psilotophyta B. Bryopsida C. Rhyniophyta 566. Choose the correct answer. Mosses can breed: A. fragmentation B. separate parts of the body D. schizogony 567. Choose the correct answer. Under what condition is fertilization possible in mosses: A. in the presence of light В. in the presence of water С. in the presence of high temperature 568. Choose the correct answer. What is formed after sprouting spores in mosses: A. sporophil B. protonema C. gametes 569. Choose the correct answer. For pine needles is not typical:     A. the presence of two vascular bundles B. a large number of stomata     C. the location of stomata in the grooves     D. the absence of lateral branches of the vascular bundles 570. Choose the correct answer. Not typical for female pine cones:   A. location at the base of the shoot     B. red color     C. the presence of two ovules on each scale     D. Closing scales after pollination 571. Choose the correct answer. After how many months after pollination, fertilization occurs in Scots pine:     A. 3 months     B. 6 months     C. 9 months D. 12 months 572. Choose the correct answer. For male pine cones are not typical:     A. Location at the base of the shoot     B. yellow color C. the presence of two ovules on each scale     D. oval shape 573. Choose the correct answer. The composition of pine wood does not include: A. trachea     B. tracheids     С. resin tunnels     D. wood fibers 574. Choose the correct answer. The whitish color of sphagnum leaves is related:     A. with the presence of special substances in the plastids of cells   B. with the presence of a large number of aquifer cells     C. with wax on the leaf surface 575. Choose the correct answer. The development cycle Lycopsida sporophyte:     A. one-year, exists independently     B. one-year, develops on gametophyte C. long-term, exists independently     D. perennial, develops on the gametophyte 576. Choose the correct answer. Disputes which of these plants are used in medicine, pyrotechnics, metallurgy:     A. fern     B. moss C. Lycopsida 577. Choose the correct answer. The man reproductive organ of higher plants is called: A. sperm B. antheridium C. arhegonium 578. Choose the correct answer. Mosses dominate the life cycle: A. sporophyte B. gametophyte C. sporophyte-gametophyte equally alternate 579. Choose the correct answer. In what places do mosses of the class Bryopsida grow: A. desert B. tundra C. tropical zone 580. Choose the correct answer. Archegonia and antheridia are organs:     A. vegetative propagation   B. sexual reproduction     C. seed propagation     D. reproduction organs are not 581. Choose the correct answer. Reproduction is characteristic of mosses:     A. only vegetative     B. only sexual C. alternation of sex and asexual 582. Choose the correct answer. Mosses is a department: A. higher plants     B. lower plants     C. plants are not 583. Choose the correct answer. From the fern dispute is formed:   A. small multicellular gametophyte     B. An adult plant on which sporangia are formed     C. thin long thread - protonema 584. Choose the correct answer. Fertilization in ferns is possible with: A. nutrients B. drip water C. wind D. insects 585. Choose the correct answer. Fern's embryo is attached to the substrate:     A. roots     B. suckers   C. rhizoids     D. has no organs of attachment 586. Choose the correct answer. Ferns refer to: A. lower plants B. higher plants C. form an independent kingdom 587. Choose the correct answer. Fern leaves serve: A. only for photosynthesis B. for transpiration processes C. for photosynthesis of gas exchange, processes of transpiration and sporulation D. for the formation of germ cells 588. Choose the correct answer. After fertilization, the zygotes of ferns form:   A. sporophyte germ     B. gametophyte     C. seed 589. Choose the correct answer. Which of the plants listed reproduce by seed:     A. Mosses, Horsetails     B. Moons, Ferns     C. Gymnastics, Horsetails D. Gymnosperms, Angiosperms 590. Choose the correct answer. From the spores of ferns is formed: A. sporophyte B. gametophyte C. zygote 591. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle of horsetails dominates: A. gametophyte B. sporophyte C. sporophyte germ 592. Choose the correct answer. For horsetail characteristic:     A. the presence of diverse and well-developed leaves B. leaves are reduced     C. leaves are absent 593. Choose the correct answer. The body of photosynthesis in the horsetail is:     A. leaves     B. tubers C. stem 594. Choose the correct answer. The main difference between ferns and mosses is that: A. mosses multiply by spores, ferns by seeds B. mosses live in highly humid places, ferns prefer dry habitats С. moss has no developed conducting vascular tissues, while ferns have a root, stem, leaves with conducting tissues D. mosses multiply by seeds, ferns - by spores 595. Choose the correct answer. For ferns characteristic: A. the presence of diverse and well-developed leaves B. leaves are small and poorly developed C. leaves are absent 596. Choose the correct answer. Sporangia ferns are formed on: A. stalk B. leaves C. rhizome 597. Choose the correct answer. In pine, microgametogenesis occurs in:     A. ovules     B. germinal bag     C. pollen bag   D. pollen grain 598. Choose the correct answer. Which set of chromosomes contains endosperm gymnosperms: A. haploid     B. diploid     C. triploid 599. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle of Scots pine, the sporophyte is presented:   A. leafy plant     B. male cone     C. pollen grain     D. female cone 600. Choose the correct answer. Pine megasporogenesis occurs in:   A. ovules     B. female gametophyte     C. pollen bag     D. pollen grain 601. Choose the correct answer. In the life cycle of ferns prevails: A. gametophyte B. sporophyte C. overgrown 602. Choose the correct answer. From which in the process of evolution the ovule was formed:     A. from zygote     B. from gametes     C. of gametangium   D. from sporangia 603. Choose the correct answer. Where are the ovules of Scots pine:     A. on the scales of female cones     B. on the stems     C. on the scales of male cones 604. Choose the correct answer. What is formed inside the ovule:   A. disputes     B. overgrown with archegonia     C. pollen 605. Choose the correct answer. What is formed in the male cones:   A. pollen     B. overgrown with archegonia     C. anteridia 606. Choose the correct answer. How sperm cells are delivered to the ova in pine:     A. by water     B. by the wind C. pollen tube 607. Choose the correct answer. The central part of the ovule, which is megasporangia, is called:   A. nuсellus     B. integument     C. micropyle 608. Choose the correct answer. What is the pine generative organ: A. root B. trunk C. needles D. pine cone 609. Choose the correct answer. The Gymnosperms department refers to: A. Lower plants B. Higher plants C. Spore plants D. Aquatic plants 610. Choose the correct answer. For gymnosperms, unlike angiosperms, it is characteristic: A. Seed reproduction B. Autotrophic nutrition C. Availability of vegetative organs D. No flower and fruit 611. Choose three correct answers. How to use pine needles: A. in the production of vitamin supplements B. in perfumery C. for resin D. therapeutic agent 612. Choose the correct answer. The dispersion of the seeds of pine and spruce occurs: A. spring B. summer C. winter D. autumn IV. ANGIOSPERMATOPHYTA 613. Choose the correct answer. The generative organs of angiosperms include:     A. sprout and root     B. shoot and fruit C. flower and seed 614. Choose the correct answer. In wind-pollinated plants matures:     A. the same amount of pollen as that of insects     B. less pollen than in insects    C. abundance of pollen 615. Choose the correct answer. Pollen of wind-pollinated plants in comparison with pollen of insect-pollinated plants usually:    A. small     B. is large     C. average 616. Choose two correct answers. From the listed signs indicate the characteristics characteristic of the class “Monocotyledones”: A. the number of petals and sepals is a multiple of four or five B. fibrous root system C. core root system D. the number of sepals and petals is a multiple of three 617. Choose two correct answers. From the listed signs indicate the characteristics characteristic of the class “Monocotyledones”: A. arc or parallel venation B. mesh venation C. two cotyledons D. one cotyledon 618. Choose the correct answer. The ornamental plants of the Ascetices family include:      A. Chamomile      B. Dandelion   C. Aster 619. Choose the correct answer. Potato tubers are:      A. fruits      B. thickened lateral roots      C. root vegetables    D. modified shoots 620. Choose the correct answer. Specify a family that does not include in the Dicotyledones class: A. Cruciferae B. Liliaceae C. Rosaceae D. Solanaceous 621. Choose the correct answer. What type of fruit does Cruciferae has: A. boll B. bob C. pod D. basket 622. Choose the correct answer. The Rosaceae family includes:   A. Dog rose      B. Nightshade      C. Beans      D. Chamomile 623. Choose the correct answer. Symbiosis with nitrogen-fixing bacteria can be formed by representatives of the family: A. Cereal B. Nightshade C. Cruciferous D. Legumes 624. Choose the correct answer. In representatives of the Rosaceae family, the fruit cannot be called:   A. berry      B. pitted      C. strawberry      D. multi-hole 625. Choose the correct answer. The elevated part does not die off in the autumn:     A. in lily of the valley     B. at the nettle C. in strawberries 626. Choose the correct answer. Cruciferous family includes:   A. cabbage      B. pear      C. sunflower 627. Choose the correct answer. To which family do Lupinus albus: A. Solanaceae B. Fabaceae C. Cruciferae D. Asteraceae 628. Choose the correct answer. Solanum tuberosum is used in food: A. fruits B. roots C. shoots D. seeds 629. Choose the correct answer. The representatives of the Cruciferous family of the fruit is called:     A. berry     B. pitted     C. grain D. pod 630. Choose the correct answer. For Asteraceae characteristic inflorescence: A. head B. brush C. cob 631. Choose the correct answer. The fruit of the box is typical for members of the family:     A. Cruciferous     B. Nettle     С. Fabaceae   D. Poppy 632. Choose the correct answer. In plants, they are most sensitive to the influence of adverse factors:     A. seeds     B. bulbs     C. adult plant   D. seedlings 633. Choose the correct answer. What plant belong to the Rosaceae family: A. Brassica oleracea B. Rosa C. Solanum tuberosum D. Triflium 634. Choose the correct answer. What plant belong to the family of Poaceae: A. Triflium B. Pinus C. Convallaria majalis D. Z. mays 635. Choose the correct answer. What plant belong to the family of Solanaceae? A. Rosa B. Solanum tuberosum C. Triflium D. Pinus 636. Choose two correct answers. Of the listed signs, specify only those that are characteristic for the class “Dicotyledones”: A. The number of petals and sepals is a multiple of four or five B. Loquid Root System C. Core root system D. The number of sepals and petals is a multiple of three 637. Choose two correct answers. Of the listed signs, specify only those that are characteristic for the class “Dicotyledones”: A. Arc or parallel venation B. Mesh venation C. Two cotyledons D. One cotyledon 638. Choose the correct answer. The representatives of the family Asteraceae fruit is called: A. berry B. a box C. caryopsis D. seed 639. Choose the correct answer. Specify the plants of the Asteraceae family: A. Saccharum officinarum, Bambusa B. Rosa D. Aster 640.Choose the correct answer. Name the type of fruit in Fabaceae: A. boll B. bean C. pod D. basket 641. Choose the correct answer. The cambium between wood and bast is in the stem of a plant:     A. monoctyledons B. dicotyledons     C. both monocotyledons and dicotyledons 642. Choose the correct answer. The fruit of the box is typical for members of the family: A. Solanaceae B. Fabaceae C. Cruciferae D. Liliaceae 643. Choose the correct answer. Specify the plants of the Liliaceae family: A. Bambusa B. Barbarea vulgaris C. Convallaria majalis D. Aster 644. Choose the correct answer. If the corn seeds are sown in early spring, they will not grow due to lack:     A. moisture     B. light C. heat     D. air 645. Choose the correct answer. What family includes potatoes, tomatoes, pepper: A. Solanaceae B. Fabaceae C. Cruciferae D. Asteraceae 646. Choose the correct answer. Fruits and berries are formed from: A. tomato, potato, grape     B. strawberries, strawberries, raspberries     С. plum, cherry, apricot 647. Choose the correct answer. Fruit of the Fabaceae family: A. berry B. pod C. bean D. box 648. Choose the correct answer. Why Liliaceae belongs to the class of monocots: A. have small, inconspicuous flowers without perianth B. have a pivotal root system and reticulation C. have a fibrous root system and parallel veining of leaves D. the fruit of the kernel is rich in nutrients that feed the embryo during germination 649. Choose the correct answer. Wind-pollinated plants - birch, hazel - bloom before the leaves appear, because:   A. foliage impedes pollen transport     B. in the forest more light     С. in the forest more insects     D. spring stronger wind 650. Choose two correct answers. What is the function of the pericarp: A. forms pollen B. protects seeds from adverse factors C. protects against drying out 651. Choose the correct answer. Annual and biennial plants include:     A. shrubs     B. some trees   C. only herbs     D. all trees 652. Choose the correct answer. The function of the endosperm is: A. it stores spare nutrients B. maintains optimum seed temperature C. protects the seed from external influence 653. Choose the two correct answers. What develops from a seed germ: A. gametophyte B. sporofit C. sexual haploid generation 654. Choose the correct answer. Interstitial stem growth is typical for members of the family:     A. Lilein B. Cereal     C. Compositae     D. Rosaceae 655. Choose the correct answe. What systematization is the most common today: A. Bush N. B. Vettshtein R. C. Engler A. D. Tahtajyan A. 656. Choose two correct answers. Choose signs of Dicotyledones class: A. parallel veining of leaves B. reticular leaf veining C. cambium is absent D. cambium present 657. Choose two correct answers.Choose characters class Monocotyledones: A. parallel veining of leaves B. mesh venation of leaves C. cambium is absent D. cambium present 658. Choose two correct answers. Choose signs of class Dicotyledones: A. flower 4-5 - rated type B. perianth simple C. perianth double D. flower 3-membered type 659. Choose two correct answers.Choose characters class Monocotyledones A.flower 4-5 - term type B. perianth simple C. perianth double D. flower 3 member type 660. Choose two correct answers.Choose characters class Monocotyledones A. life forms: grass, trees, shrubs B. core root system C. life forms: herbs only D. flower 3 member type V PLANT ECOLOGY AND GEOBOTANY 661. Choose the correct answer. The method of ecology are not: A. monitoring, B. microscopic С. experimental D. mathematical modeling 662. Choose the correct answer. The term ecosystem introduced in science: A. Vernadsky B. Sukachev C. Tansley 663. Choose the correct answer. Autecology is ecology: A. individuals B. populations С. communities D. man 664. Choose the correct answer. Mandatory components of the ecosystem are: A. flora and fauna B. biocenosis and biotope C. soil and vegetation cover 665. Choose the correct answer. Producers, consumers and distributors are included in the group: A. abiotic ecosystem components B. biotic components of the ecosystem C. anthropogenic components of the ecosystem 666. Choose the correct answer. Mechanisms that maintain a stable state of ecosystems are called: A. homeostatic B. constitutional mechanisms C. feedback mechanisms 667. Choose the correct answer. The set of populations functioning in a certain space of an abiotic environment is called: A. biocenosis B. biogeocenosis C. biotope 668. Choose the correct answer. Elements of the environment that have a significant impact on living organisms are called: A. anthropogenic factors B. limiting factors C. environmental factors D. biotic factors 669. Choose the correct answer. Edaphic factors include: A. length of day and night B. sunlight, temperature and humidity C. soil composition and properties 670. Choose the correct answer. The range of tolerance between the minimum and maximum is called: A. limit of tolerance B. the norm of tolerance C. optimum tolerance 671. Choose the correct answer. The anthropogenic factors include: A. sinoikia B. soil composition C. fertilizer application D. parasitism G. competition H. light 672. Choose the correct answer. In the absence of limiting factors, population size: A. stabilizes B. increases exponentially C. experiences periodic fluctuations D. falls 673. Choose the correct answer. The factor, the intensity of which is most favorable for the vital activity of the organism, is called: A. normal reaction B. upper endurance limit C. optimal D. limiting 674. Choose the correct answer. The leading role in the reduction of fish stocks of the World Ocean was played by factors: A. climatic B. biotic C. abiotic D. anthropogenic 675. Choose the correct answer. Antagonistic symbiosis is: A. antibiosis B. sinoikia C. commensalism D. parasitism G. mutualism 676. Choose two correct answers. What interspecific biotic relationships have medical significance: A. сompetition B. parasitism C. mutualism D. antibiosis 677. Choose the correct answer. The form of interrelations of organisms, in which one species of organisms lives at the expense of another, eating it, is called: A. competition B. parasitism C. predation D. symbiosis 678. Choose the correct answer. Mutually beneficial, but not obligatory relationships between different types of organisms are called: A. commensalism B. mutualism C. parasitism D. anabiosis 679. Choose the correct answer. Relationships in which one of the partners benefits, and the other they are indifferent, are called: A. anabiosis B. mutualism C. commensalism D. symbiosis G. competition 680. Choose the correct answer. The term "ecology" was introduced in 1868: A. Linnaeus B. Haeckel C. Lamarck D. Sukachev 681. Choose the correct answer. Ecosystems that have changed under the influence of human economic activity are called: A. natural B. modified C. transformed 682. Choose the correct answer. Air, water and solid habitats are included in the group: A. abiotic ecosystem components, B. biotic ecosystem components, C. anthropogenic components of the ecosystem. 683. Choose the correct answer. The ecology of populations is studied by: A. autoecology B. synecology C. geoecology D. demecology 684. Choose the correct answer. The population is: A. aggregate of uneven-aged individuals, united by common conditions of existence B. a set of uneven-age individuals of the same species, exchanging genetic information, united by the general conditions of existence necessary to maintain their numbers for a long time; C. set of individuals that make up the population of a particular ecosystem 685. Choose the correct answer. What level of organization of the living is not investigated by ecology: A. biogeocenotic B. organ C. biosphere D. ontogenetic G. population-specific 686. Choose the correct answer. The combination of various human influences on inanimate and living nature is called: A. the limiting factors B. environmental factors C. anthropogenic factors 687. Choose the correct answer. Ecological factors, the most distant from their optimal values ​​and limiting the vital activity of the organism or ecosystem, are called: A. limiting factors B. environmental factors C. anthropogenic factors 688. Choose the correct answer. The law of tolerance was discovered: A. Sukachev B. Tansley C. Shelford 689. Choose the correct answer. What is the limiting factor in the biocenosis: A. water B. light C. food G. wind 690. Choose the correct answer. Organisms with limited adaptive capabilities are called: A. eurybionts B. stenobionts C. stenotherms D. antibionts 691. Choose the correct answer. The main signal of the occurrence of changes in the environment is: A. change in air temperature B. precipitation C. change in day length D. snowfall 692. Choose two correct answers. Anthropogenic ecosystems include: A. phytocenosis B. biocenosis C. agrocenosis D. urbanocenosis G. zoocenosis 693. Choose the correct answer. The form of the relationship between lice and man is: A. apartment B. swindles C. mutualism D. parasitism 694. Choose the correct answer. How much of the visible light is used by plants for photosynthesis: A. green B. red and blue C. yellow and green D. purple and orange 695. Choose the correct answer. The main functional unit in ecology: A. population B. ecosystem C. biocenosis D. view 684. Choose the correct answer. The section of ecology, whose task is to establish the limits of the existence of an individual (organism a) : A. Demecology B. Synecology C. Eidecology D. Autoecology 685. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the whole complex of plant species living together and connected with each other: A. biocenosis B. phytocenosis C. zoocenosis D. agrocenosis 686. Choose two correct answers. Global environmental problems are primarily caused by: A. cosmic factors B. high rates of progress C. climate change D. human psychology 687. Choose the correct answer. The greenhouse effect occurs as a result of accumulation in the atmosphere: A. carbon monoxide B. carbon dioxide C. sulfur oxides D. nitrogen 688. Choose the correct answer. In the formation of layering in the forest community the limiting factor is: A. light B. temperature C. water D. water 689. Choose the correct answer. The edaphic factor is: A. soil B. water C. oxygen D. shine 690. Choose the correct answer. Plant organisms that can live in a wide range of environmental factor variations are called: A. eurybiont B. stenobiont C. stenothermic 691. Choose the correct answer. Plants that grow in good light, belong to the group: A. photophilous B. shade tolerant C. shade-loving D. luminous 692. Choose the correct answer. The reaction of plants to the daily rhythm of illumination, which affects their growth and development, is called: A. photoperiodism B. thermoperiodism C. light dependence D. photosynthesis 693. Choose the correct answer. In relation to the water regime, the following plants are distinguished among land plants: A. xerophytes, phanophytes, hygrophytes B. xerophytes, succinic mesophytes C. mesophytes, xerophytes, hydrophytes D. poikilothermic and homoterm 694. Choose the correct answer. Cryophytes are plants: A. dwelling in arid zones B. dry and cold habitat C. inhabiting in conditions of high moisture 695. Choose the correct answer. Plants inhabiting highly saline soils are classified as ecological group of plants: A. halophytes B. litofity C. вasofites 696. Choose the correct answer. To serofit s are plants: A. living in conditions of significant lack of moisture B. living on very moist soils C. beginning its life cycle in water, but over time, the stems and leaves of which leave the water: 697. Choose two correct answers. The difficulties of plant life in the swamp include: A. strongly alkaline soil reaction B. cold water C. nutritional deficiencies D. lack of oxygen in the soil 698. Choose the correct answer. Zoogenic factors affecting plants belong to the group of environmental factors: A. abiotic B. biotic C. еdaphic 699. Choose the correct answer. What is the name of the group of cold-loving organisms: A. cryophiles B. hygrophilic C. Thermophiles D. xerophiles 700. Choose the correct answer. What a way to control weeds environmentally safe: A. agrotechnical (mechanical) B. chemical C. use of radioactive radiation D. the use of flamethrowers 701. Choose the correct answer. Chemicals produced by plants that inhibit a number of microorganisms are called: A. pheromones B. fungicides C. phytoncides D. detergents 702. Choose the correct answer. The group of toxic chemicals, which inhibits the growth and development of fungi, are called: A. pheromones B. fungicides C. phytoncides D. detergents 703. Choose the correct answer. The life form of plants, characterized by signs: a perennial plant with a single lignified stem that persists throughout life, is called: A. tree B. shrub C. grass D. herbaceous plant 704. Choose the correct answer. Aquatic plants immersed in water only in their lower parts are called: A. Hydrophytes B. Hydatofits D. Mesophytes 705. Choose two correct answers. Note the ecological groups of plants in relation to the soil: A. hydrophytes B. halophytes C. basophytes D. xerophytes 706. Choose the correct answers. For hygrophytic plants, the following characteristics are characteristic: A. big leaves with thin cuticle B. powerful root development C. is abcent correct answer 707. Choose the correct answer. The highest concentration of living matter is observed: A. in the upper atmosphere B. in the depths of the oceans C. in the lithosphere D. at the boundaries of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and lithosphere