Division “Microbiology of oral cavity” 1. As representatives of microbial world actinomycetes belong to: +A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. Viruses 2. Synergists of streptococci: +A. Lactobacillus B. Veillonella C. Corynebacterium D. Neisseria 3. Gram-negative representatives of microbiota of oral cavity: +A. Neisseria, Bacteroides, Prevotella B. Fusobacterium, Prevotella, Actinomyces C. Veillonella, Peptostreptococcus, Treponema 4. Choosespindle-shapedrods: A. Veillonella B. Leptotrichia +C. Fusobacterium D. Neisseria 5. Choose characteristics of Leptotrichia: A. Club-shaped Gram-positive rods B. Gram-negative cocci C. Gram-negative rods +D. Gram-negative long thick filaments forming interlacement 6. Choose acidophilic bacteria of microbiota of oral cavity: + A. Lactobacillus and Streptococcus B. Streptococcus and Prevotella C. Lactobacillus and Treponema D. Streptococcus and Bacteroides 7. All of following Latin names of microorganisms contain mistakes, except: +A. Actinomyces israelii B. Streptococcus aureus C. Lactobacillus mutans D. Neisseria vincentii 8. Genus including pigment-forming, carbohydrate-inert bacteroides: À Bacteroides Â. Fusobacterium +Ñ. Porphyromonas D. Prevotella 9. Choose microorganisms witch belong to autochthonous(indigenous) obligate microflora of the oral cavity: A. Actinomyces, Streptococcus pyogenes, Bacteroides +B. Actinomyces, Lactobacillus, alpha hemolytic ("green") streptococci C. Bacteroides, Escherichia, Enterococcus 10. Choose characteristics of Veillonella: A. Gram-positive aerobes +B. Gram-negative anaerobes C. Gram-positive anaerobes D. Gram-negative aerobes 11. Representatives of microbiota of oral cavity: strictly anaerobic Gram-negative cocci, antagonists of cariogenic microbiota: À. Peptococcus Â. Peptostreptococcus +Ñ. Veillonella D. Fusobacterium 12. Choose the obligate anaerobic Gram-positive cocci of microbiota of oral cavity, which have high adhesive properties to tooth enamel: +À. Peptostreptococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Actinomyces D. Fusobacterium 13. Choose the most important microecological factor of caries resistance: A. Streptococcus Â. Bacteroides +Ñ. Veillonella D. Actinomyces 14. Choose wrong Latin name of microorganism: +À. Staphylococcus mutans Â. Fusobacterium necroforum Ñ. Porphyromonasgingivalis D. Prevotellamelaninogenica 15. Choose representative of Protozoa which can be detected in microbiota of oral cavity: +À. Entamoeba gingivalis B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Plasmodium ovale D. Leishmania donovani 16. Choose microorganism of microbiota of oral cavity, that belongs to Yeast-like fungi: +A. Candida albicans B. Candida krusei C. Candida tropicalis D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 17. Choose microorganism capable of locomotion by pseudopodia; it has differentiated nucleus and can be detected in microbiota of oral cavity: A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Plasmodium vivax C. Trichomonas vaginalis +D. Entamoeba gingivalis 18. Choose a property that binds actinomycetes with fungi: A. A rod-shaped B. A filamentous shape +C. The presence of mycelium D. A lack of differentiated nucleus 19. Gram-positive representatives of microbiota of oral cavity: A. Lactobacillus, Neisseria, Corynebacterium B. Actinomyces, Veillonella, Leptotrichia +C. Lactobacillus, Streptococcus, Actynomyces 20.Choose characteristics of Veillonella: A. Club-shaped Gram-positive rods +B. Gram-negative cocci C. Gram-negative rods D. Gram-negative long thick filaments forming interlacement 21. All of following Latin names of microorganisms contain mistakes, except: A. Actinomyces aureus + B. Streptococcus mutans C. Lactobacillus sangvis D. Neisseria vincentii 22. Choose representatives of microbiota of oral cavity forming colonies in dark color: A. Streptococcus B. Veillonella +C. Prevotella D. Neisseria 23. Choose microorganism that needs vitamin K as growth factor: A. Actinomyces +B. Bacteroides C. Corynebacterium D. Treponema 24. Choose genus included Bacteroides capable of fermenting of carbohydrates: A. Peptococcus B. Peptostreptococcus C. Porphyromonas +D. Prevotella 25. Lactobacillus – representatives of microbiota of the oral cavity: A. Allochthonous microbiota of the oral cavity +B. Autochthonous obligate microbiota of the oral cavity C. Autochthonous facultative microbiota of the oral cavity 26. Choose obligate anaerobic representatives of microbiota of oral cavity: A. Veillonella and Neisseria B. Bifidobacterium and Corynebacterium +C. Fusobacterium and Prevotella 27.Choose wrong characteristics of Porphyromonas: A. They are representatives of microbiota of oral cavity B. Gram-negative anaerobes +C. They ferment carbohydrates D. Produceblackpigment 28. Choose microorganisms -representatives of microbiota of oral cavity that have branching form and Gram-positive cell wall, produce spores, ferment carbohydrates with acid formation, promote tooth decay: A. Streptococcus Â. Corynebacterium Ñ. Bifidobacterium +D. Actinomyces 29. Representatives of microbiota of oral cavity: pleomorphic rods, strictly anaerobes; they produce B vitamins and inhibit growth of pathogenic microbiota: +A. Bifidobacterium B. Lactobacillus C. Corynebacterium D. Bacteroides 30. Representatives of microbiota of oral cavity: pleomorphic acidophilic rods, Gram-positive, aerobes and facultative anaerobes that belong to cariogenic microbiota: A. Bifidobacterium +B. Lactobacillus C. Corynebacterium D. Bacteroides 31.All of following Treponema species belong to resident representatives of microbiota of oral cavity, except: +À. Treponema pallidum B. Treponema orale C. Treponema gingivalis D. Treponema microdentium 32. All of following representatives of microbiota of oral cavity are named correctly, except: +A. Bacteroides mutans B. Fusobacterium necroforum C. Porphyromonasgingivalis D. Prevotellamelaninogenica 33. Choose representative of Protozoa that can be detected in microbiota of oral cavity: A. Entamoeba histolytica +B. Trichomonas tenax C. Plasmodium vivax D. Leishmania tropica 34. Choose genus of Fungi that causes thrush: À. Saccharomyces B. Mucor C. Aspergillus +D. Candida 35. Choose microorganism that has membrane bound nucleus, moves by using flagella and undulating membrane, can be detected in the in microbiota of oral cavity: À. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Trichomonas hominis +C. Trichomonas tenax D. Entamoeba histolytica 36. The initial stage of the dental plaque formation is: A. The colonization of the matrix by anaerobes +B. The formation of organic matrix C. The coaggregation of bacteria D. The mineralization of dental enamel 37. Choose the factor that induces the formation of dental heavy calculus: +A. The mineralization of dental enamel B. The coaggregation of bacteria C. The formation of organic matrix D. The colonization of the matrix by anaerobes 38. Choose microorganism playing a leading role in the dental demineralization: A. Corynebacterium, which produce the vitamin K B. Veillonella, which utilize lactic acid +C. Lactobacillus along with Streptococcus 39. Which methods of the sample collection are used in the diagnosis of pulpitis? A. Puncture by syringe +B. Sampling by pulp extractor C. Scrapingofdentalplaque 40. The supragingival dental plaques take part in the development of: +A. Caries B. Periodontitis C. Pulpitis D. Stomatitis 41. The etiological factor in the development of Vincent’s ulcerative necrotic stomatitis is the association of microbes: A. Bacteroides and Streptococcus +B. Fusobacterium and Spirochetes C. Staphylococcus and Prevotella D. Neisseria and Veillonella 42. The organic matrix of dental plaque is formed by: A. Food leftovers +B. Glycoproteins of saliva and chemicals elements of dental enamel C. Oralepithelium 43. Óñòàíîâèòüïîñëåäîâàòåëüíîñòü: Set the correct sequence of stages in thedental plaque formation: 1) coaggregationofmicrobes; 2) colonization of the matrix with aerobes; 3) colonization of the matrix with anaerobes; 4) formation of an organic matrix. + 4, 2, 3, 1 44. The first stage of caries formation is characterized by: +A. Dental demineralization, the increase space between microcrystals of enamel prisms B. The migration of microbes into enamel and its destruction by microbial enzymes C. The migration of microbes into dentin, which multiply and cause the softening of dentin D. A cavity formation 45. The first and second stages of caries formation are associated with: +A. Acidophilic bacteria B. Proteolytic bacteria 46. The third and fourth stages of caries formation are associated with: A. Acidophilic bacteria +B. Proteolytic bacteria 47. All of following measures are effective for prevention of caries, except for: A. The use of chlorhexidine solution +B. Inclusion of fructose in the diet instead of sugar C. Use of fluoride-containing toothpastes D. The use of chewing gum with xylitol 48.Porphyromonasgigivalis belongs to the following taxonomic group: +A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D.Viruses 49. Which method is used for sterilization of dental model? A. Ultrasonic irradiation B. Pasteurization +C. Ionizing plasma sterilization D. Autoclave 50. The decisivestage in the dental plaqueformation is: A. The formation of organic matrix B. The colonization of the matrix by anaerobes +C. The coaggregation of bacteria D. The mineralization of dental enamel 51. Which microorganisms provide caries resistance? A. Neisseria, which reduce redox-potential +B. Veillonella, which utilize lactic acid and increase pH C. Lactobacillus are synergists of Streptococcus D. Corynebacterium, which produce the vitamin K 52. The main mechanism of cariogenic effects of Lactobacillus: A. Adhesion on the surface of the enamel. +B. Acid formation and enamel demineralization C. Polymerization of glucose D. Neutralization of the action of lysozyme 53. What microorganisms belong to cariogenic microbiota? +A. Lactobacillus, Actinomyces, Streptococcus mutans B. Veillonella, Staphylococcus, Lactobacillus C. Neisseria, Veillonella, Actinomyces 54. Which microorganisms synthesize insoluble glycans (dextrans) from sucrose? A. Actinomyces B. Corynebacterium +C. Streptococcus mutans D. Treponema 55. What microorganisms play the leading role in the development of first and second stages of caries? A. Bacteroides and Prevotella B. Fusobacterium and Spirochetes +C. Streptococcus and Lactobacillus D. Actinomyces and Veillonella 56. Insoluble glycans (dextrans) as a factor in the development of caries provide: A. The invasion of microbes in tooth tissue +B. Prolonged contact of lactic acid with tooth enamel Ñ. The dentin destruction D. The development of allergic reactions 57. What microorganisms play leading role in the development of median and deep caries? A. Gram-positive aerobes B. Acid-producing bacteria +C. Gram-negativeanaerobes D. Gram-negative aerobes 58. Find a mistake in explaining the different mechanisms of firm attachment of microbes to the tooth surface: A. Pilus, teichoic acids provide adhesion to enamel of tooth B. Coccithese do not have adhesive properties are attached to rod-shaped bacteria + C. Streptococci attach to tooth tissues due to polysaccharides of fructans (levans) D. Insoluble dextrans formed from glucose are of great importance in the adhesion of streptococci 59. The second stage of caries formation is characterized by: A. Dental demineralization, the increase space between microcrystals of enamel prisms +B. The migration of microbes into enamel and its destruction by microbial enzymes C. The migration of microbes into dentin, which multiply and cause the softening of dentin 60. Dentin tissue destruction and odontoblast atrophy are characteristic of: A. Pulpitis B. The first stage of caries +C. The second stage of caries D. The fourth stage of caries 61. The formation of dental calculus occurs due to: +A. The mineralization of dental plaque B. The softening of hard tooth tissues C. The destruction of dentin and enamel 62. Which methods of sampling are used in study of microbiota of dental plaque? A. Puncture by syringe +B. Scraping of dental plaque C. Sampling by pulp extractor D. Sampling softened dentin by using dental excavator 63. Hot glass bead sterilization is used for: + A. Dental cutter + B. Working parts of dental explorer C. Dental models D. Teeth mirrors 64. Preparations used to decrease possibilities of caries development are the following except: A. Chlorhexidine B. Fluorine compounds C. Xylitol +D. Fructose 65. All of following diseases belong to inflammatory periodontal diseases, except for: A. Gingivitis B. Periodontitis +C. Parodontosis D. Pulpitis 66. The generalized dystrophic lesion of all tissues of periodontium is called: A. Osteomyelitis B. Periodontitis +C. Parodontosis D. Pulpitis 66. All of following bacteria belong to first-order parodontopathogenic bacteria, except for: A. Porphyromonasgingivalis B. Tannerellaforsytus C. Aggregatibacteractinomycetemcomitans +D. Actinomyces israelii 67. All of following bacteria belong to second-order parodontopathogenic bacteria, except for: +A. Candida albicans B. Prevotella intermedia C. Peptococcusniger D. Treponema denticola 68. Choose the role of living microbes in the development of periodontitis: A. The secretion of exotoxins by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Fusobacterium B. The production of pathologic autoimmune antigens from destroyed periodontal tissues C. The secretion of enzymes, which destroy ligamentous apparatus of the tooth D. The induction of autoimmune processes and allergic reactions +E. A and C is correct F. B and D is correct 69. Choose the role of dead microbes in the development of periodontitis: A. The production of pathologic autoimmune antigens from destroyed periodontal tissues B. The induction of autoimmune processes and allergic reactions C. The secretion of exotoxins by Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Fusobacterium D. The secretion of enzymes, which destroy ligamentous apparatus of the tooth +E. A and B is correct F. C and D is correct 71. The main protective local immunity mechanism of oral cavity against caries is: A. Ig M B. Ig G C. Serum Ig A +D. Secretory Ig A 72. A serous inflammation of the pulp is most often caused by associations of bacteria: A. Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides, Clostridium B. Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus +C. Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Bacteroides 73. A purulent inflammation of the pulp is most often caused by associations of bacteria: A. Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Bacteroides B. Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides, Clostridium +C. Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus 74. A gangrenous process in the tooth pulp is often caused by associations of bacteria: A. Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Bacteroides +C. Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides, Clostridium 75. Bacteria these assist to populate of a dental plaque by anaerobes are all following exclude: +A. Veillonella B. Neisseria C. Streptococcus D. Corynebacterium 76. Mechanism of anti- dental caries protection by Veillonella is: +A. Destroying of milk acid to CO2 + H2O B. Destroying of the carbohydrates to acid C. Synthesis of vitamin K D. Decreasing of oxygen concentration 77. All of following microbes are causative agents of clostridial anaerobic infection of the maxillofacial region, except for: A. Clostridium perfringens +B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium septicum D. Clostridium oedematiens 78.All of following microbes are causative agents of non-clostridial anaerobic infection of the maxillofacial region, except for: A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Porphyromonasgingivalis C. Prevotella intermedia +D. Staphylococcus aureus 79.Which methods of sampling are used in study of microbiota of the abscess of the maxillofacial region: A. Scraping of dental plaque B. Sampling by pulp extractor C. Sampling softened dentin by using dental excavator +D. Puncture by syringe 80. Microscopic examination of smears prepared from scrapings of erosion in the gum region, in the retro-molar region, revealed a large number of spindle-shaped rods and convoluted forms of bacteria. What can you think about when you get these analysis results? A. Gas gangrene B. Oral candidiasis (Oral thrush) C. Actinomycosis of the oral cavity +D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (Vincent infection, trench mouth, acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis) 81. The microscopic examination of white plaque on the oral mucosa revealed large rounded Gram-positive cells and elongated pseudomycelia filaments. Choose microorganisms that cause this stomatitis: +A. Yeast-like fungi B. Actinomycetes C. Spirochetes D. Protozoa 82. The detection of drusen in the purulent discharge from the oral cavity is characteristic of: A. Postoperative suppurative processes +B. Actinomycosis C. Gas anaerobic infection D. Purulent inflammation of the pulp of the tooth. 83. The patient was found to have candidiasis of the oral cavity with extensive lesions of the mucous membrane of the cheeks, tongue, and gums. During a serological study with candida antigen, a significant increase in antibody titer was observed in dynamics. What underlying disease should be thought of and sent for examination for? A. Herpetic infection B. Syphilis C. Tuberculosis +D. HIV infection 84. At the child who came to the dentist’s appointment, the doctor saw vivid hyperemia of the tonsils, tongue, soft palate, skin rash, cyanosis of the nasolabial triangle. What disease should you think about? +A. Scarlet fever B. Diphtheria C. Tuberculosis D. Syphilis 85. The dentist saw the patient on the tonsils fibrinous films of dirty gray color, passing to the neighboring sections of the oropharynx. A decision was made on urgent hospitalization of the patient. What dangerous disease did the doctor suspect? A. Tonsillitis B. Influenza +Ñ. Diphtheria D. HIV - infection 86. When examining a patient, the dentist drew attention to a painless uncer that was located on the lower lip. On palpation enlarged dense painless submandibular lymph nodes were found. What disease can you think about? +A. The first stage of syphilis B. The third stage of Syphilis C. Cutaneous tuberculosis D. Stafilodermiyalar 87. During the tooth extraction, the dentist drew attention to popular rashes on the oral mucosa. The papules are flat, without an inflammatory rim, painless. What disease should be feared in this case? A. Herpetic infection B. Scarlet fever C. Diphtheria +D. Syphilis 88. In a teenager, the dentist saw changes in the two upper central incisors: The teeth at the neck are winder than at the cutting edge, the teeth are shaped like a screwdriver a half moon recess along the cutting edge. These signs are characteristic of: A. The early congenital syphilis +B. The late congenital syphilis C. The first period of syphilis D. The second period of syphilis 89. All following sings are characteristic of the herpetic stomatitis, except for: A. A edema and hyperemia of the oral mucosa B. Vesicles on the mucosa filled with serous fluid C. Vesicles combine into erosions with irregular edges +D. Lack of pain, itching, burning sensation 90. All following sings are characteristic of the chronic recurrent herpes, except for: A. Single or groups of small vesicles on the palate of the border of the lips B. Burning sensation in the affected area +C. Vesicles do not fuse and do not cause pain D. Relapse occurs after cooling 91. In which diseases, accompanied by aphthous lesions of the oral mucosa, a person becomes infected only from animals? +A. Murrain (food-and-mouth disease) B. Herpes C. Vesicular stomatitis D. Coxsackivirusesstomatitis 92. Porphyromonasgigivalis belongs to the following taxonomic group: +A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Protozoa D. Viruses 93. Gram-positive bacteria are: + A. Lactobacillus B. Veillonella + C. Corynebacterium D. Neisseria + E. Bifidobacterium 94. Gram-negative bacteria these inhabitant of oral cavity are: + A. Bacteroides, + B. Fusobacterium, C. Peptococcus D. Actinomyces + E.Veillonella 95. Spindle-like shape has: A. Leptotrichia B. Bacteroides + C. Fusobacterium D. Veillonella 96. Name the Genus of bacterium that form long thick mycelium-like threads. ### + Actinomyces 97. Acidophilic bacteria living in oral cavity: + A. Lactobacillus, Streptococcus B. Streptococcus, Treponema C. Lactobacillus, Prevotella D. Streptococcus, Bacteroides 97. Mark the correct Latin name of bacterium: + A. Actinomyces israelii B. Streptococcus aureus C. Lactobacillus mutans D. Neisseria vincentii 98. Name the genus of bacteria these have spiral shape with regular coils and may be present in oral cavity. ### + Treponema 99. To the transient microbiota of oral cavity belong: A. Streptococcus B. Lactobacillus + C. Clostridium D. Bifidobacterium 100. Initial stage of a dental plaque formation is: A. Populating of matrix with anaerobes + B.Organic matrix formation C. Co-aggregation of bacteria D. Mineralization of a dental plaque 101. Last stage of a dental plaque formation is: A. Populating of matrix with aerobes + B. Mineralization of a dental plaque C. Populating of matrix with anaerobes D. Organic matrix formation 102. Acidophilic bacteria take part in the following stage of dental caries: A. In each stage B. In 1st stage + C. 1st and 2nd stages D. In 3rd and 4th stages 103. The bacteria which play important role in a medium cariesdevelopment and deep one are: A. Oral Streptococcus B. Lactobacillus + C. Actinomyces + D. Bacteroides 1. Diploid number of chromosomes, nuclear membrane, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, histone proteins are characteristics of ### microorganisms. +Eucariotic 2. Choose group of microbes thatdoesn’t belong to prokaryotic microorganisms: A. Bacteria B. Actinomycetes C. Rickettsia +D. Candida E. Chlamydia F. Spirochetes 3. Choose main groups of microorganisms that belong to prokaryotes: +A. Bacteria +B. Actinomycetes +C. Rickettsia D. Candida 4. Definition of morphological, tinctorial, enzymatic, antigenic, culturalproperties, and bacteriophage sensitivity is used for ### of microorganisms species. +Identification 5. Choose method that is not used for laboratory diagnosis of bacterial infectious disease in medical microbiology: A. Microscopic +B. Biotechnological C. Allergic D. Serological E. Bacteriological 6. Fixation of microorganisms to the glass during slide smear preparation is used for: A. Bacteria inactivation (killing), B. Tight attachment of gems to the glass, C. Better perception of dye +D. All wrote above 7. A single chromosome, peptidoglycan, a binary type of division and absence of nuclear membrane, nucleolus and histone proteins are characteristics of ###. +Prokaryot* 8. Nucleoid, cytoplasm, cytoplasmic membrane, mesosomes, ribosomes are essential structures of ### cell: +prokaryot* 9. Nucleus, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, cell wall containing cellulose or chitin are typical for: A. Prokaryotes B. Viruses C. Prions +D. Eukaryotes 10. Choose essential components providing vital activity of bacterial cell: +A. Ribosomes B. Capsule C. Flagella D. Spores 11. Name the essential structural component of bacterial cell that is responsible for storing genetic information? ### +Nucleoid 12. The presence of the differentiated nucleus is not typical for ###. +A. Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes C. Fungi D. Protozoa 13. What structure of the bacterial cell have following functions: permeability, osmotic barrier, transport, mesosoma formation, participation in metabolism and sporulation? ### ### +A. Plasma membrane B. Cell wall C. Outer membrane D. Outer layer E. Cell shell 14. Choose non-motile microorganisms: A. Vibrio B. Spirochetes +C. Streptococci D. Salmonella 15. Choose motile microorganisms: +A. Vibrio +B. Spirochetes C. Streptococci D. Staphylococci 16. Bacterial ### are built from protein called flagellin. +Flagell* 17. ### is the fastest group of flagellated bacteria. +Monotrich* 18. ### is the slowest group of flagellated bacteria. +Peritrich* 19. Amphitrichous are bacteria with bipolar located ###: +A. Flagella B. Pili C. Spores D. Mesosomes 20. Choose basic forms of microorganisms: +A. Spherical +B. Rod-shaped +C. Spiral D. Star-shaped 21. According to shapes all medically important microorganisms are divided into: A. Spherical B. Rod-shaped C. Spiral +G. All of above are correct 22. Choose bacteria that are not spherical (cocci): A. Staphylococcus aureus +B. Escherichia coli C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcal disease pathogen) 23. Choose non spherical-shaped microorganisms: A. Staphylococcus epidermidis + B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae E. Sarcina flava 24. Meningococci of the genus ### are diplococci. (Latin name) +Neisseria* 25. Choose microorganisms which belong to diplococci: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Escherichia coli +E. Neisseria gonorrhoeae F. Clostridium tetani 26. Choose spiral-shaped microorganisms: A. Streptococcus pyogenes + B. Borrelia burgdorferi +C. Leptospira interrogans D. Salmonella typhi E. Escherichia coli 27. Choose non spiral-shaped microorganisms: A. Treponema pallidum B. Borrelia burgdorferi +C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae +D. Shigella sonnei +E. Clostridium perfringens 28. In microscope testingStreptococci are arranged in ###. +Chain* 29. In microscope testing Staphylococci are arranged: A. Randomly B. In pairs +Ñ. In grape-like clusters D. In tetrads E. In the form of packages F. Inchains 30. In microscope testingdiplococci are arranged: A. Randomly +B. In pairs Ñ. In grape-like clusters D. In tetrads E. In the form of packages F. In chains 31. Choose rod-shaped bacteria: +A. Enterobacteria B. Spirochetes +C. Bacillus, Clostridium D. Treponema E. Actinomycetes 32. Choose rod-shaped microorganisms: A. Staphylococci B. Spirochetes +C. Mycobacteria D. Yeasts E. Neisseria 33. What kind of shape group spirochetes belong to? A. Spherical B. Rod-shaped +C. Spiral D. Branching 34. Choose microorganisms lacked cell wall: A. Spirochetes B. Rickettsia +C. L-forms D. Vibrios +E. Mycoplasmas 35. In microscope testing ### causative agent is arranged like bamboo-sticks. +Anthrax* 36. The maintenance of cell shape of bacteria is provided by ### ### of the cell. +Cell wall 37. Choose characteristics NON-TYPICAL for L-form of bacteria: A. Partial or complete absence of the cell wall +B. Sensitivity to bacteriophages C. Spherical form D. Ability to reproduce 38. The difference of bacteria in Gram staining is due to chemical composition and structure of ### ###. +Cell wall 39. What unique substance is the basis of bacteria cell walls ###? +Peptidoglycan 40. What substance (bioheteropolymer) is the basis of bacteria cell wall? A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Glycogen D. Starch +E. Peptidoglycan 41. Choose chemical components of the Gram-negative bacteria cell wall: A. Multilayer peptidoglycan B. Teichoic acids +C. Thin peptidoglycan layer +D. Lipopolysaccharide E. Mycolic acids 42. Choose chemical components of Gram-positive bacteria cell wall: A. Monolayer peptidoglycan +B. Teichoic acids +C. Thick peptidoglycan layer D. Mycolic acids E. Lipopolysaccharide 43. The mechanism of Gram-negative bacteria staining includes: A. Formation of the complex of gentian violet and iodine solution, which cannot be washed out from multilayer peptidoglycan by alcohol B. Oxidation of the surface structures by iodine +C. Denaturation of protein components with ethyl alcohol, after which the aniline dyes can be washed out from cell wall easily. D. Destruction of the outer membrane with 5% sulfuric acid E. Formation of strong complex of fuchsine and peptidoglycan which cannot be washed out by alcohol 44. The mechanism of Gram-positive bacteria staining includes: +A. Formation of the complex of gentian violet and iodine solution, which cannot be washed out from multilayer peptidoglycan by alcohol B. Oxidation of the surface structures by iodine C. Formation of the complex of gentian violet and iodine solution, which can be washed out from peptidoglycan cell wall easily. D. Denaturation of protein components with ethyl alcohol, after which the aniline dyes are not perceived E. Destruction of the outer membrane with 5% sulfuric acid 45. Choose substance that isn’t used in Gram staining method: + A. Methylene blue B. Fuchsine C. Gentian violet D. Lugol's iodine E. Ethyl alcohol 46. Choose substance used in Gram staining method for discoloration of Gram-negative bacteria A. Fuchsine +B. Ethyl alcohol C. Methylene blue D. Lugol's iodine E. Gentian violet 47. Tight attachment of microorganisms to the glass during microscope slide preparation is due to: A. Application of dye B. Application of alcohol +C. Fixation D. Application of Lugol’s iodine 48. According to Gram staining Gram-negative bacteria are stained in: A.Purple color +B. Red color C. Blue color D. Yellow color E. Black color 49. Choose substances forming complex that cannot be washed out from peptidoglycan by alcohol during staining of Gram-positive bacteria: A. Methylene blue and fuchsine +B. Gentian violet and Lugol's iodine C. fuchsine and Ethyl alcohol 50. Absence of teichoic acids in cell wall structure is typical for: A. Gram-negative bacteria +B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Both are correct 51. Choose Gram-negative cocci: A. Staphilococci B. Streptococci C. Sarcina +D. Meningococci and gonococci E. Enterococci 52. Choose Gram-negative bacteria: +A. Neisseria +B. Treponema C. Clostridia D. Mycobacteria E. Enterococci 53. All of following microorganisms areGram-negative, except: A. Spirochetes B. Bordetella C. Neisseria +D. Corynebacterium E. Salmonella 54. Choose Gram-positive microorganisms: A. Escherichia B. Salmonella +C. Mycobacteria D. Bordetella E. Brucella 55. Choose Gram-negative microorganisms: +A. Yersinia pestis B. Bacillus anthracis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Clostridium perfringens E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 56. All of following microorganisms areGram-positive, except: A. Clostridia B. Bacillus anthracis C. Mycobacterium +D. Treponema E. Actynomycetes 57. Under microscopy Gram-positive rods placed at an angle to each other forming like letters X and Y is characteristic of the causative agents of ###. +Diphtheria 58. Óñòàíîâèòü ñîîòâåòñòâèå: Establish a correspondence between microorganism species, bacteria shape and Gram staining: 1) Treponema pallidum 2) Neisseria meningitidis 3) Mycobacterium tuberculosis +3. Gram-positive rods +1. Gram-negative spirals +2. Gram-negative diplococci 59. Spherical-shaped bacteria arranged in chainsare: A.Diplococci +B. Streptococci C. Staphylococci D. Tetrads E. Sarcina 60. Spherical-shaped bacteria arranged in grape-like clusters are: A. Diplococci B. Streptococci +C. Staphylococci D. Tetrads E. Sarcina 61. The stage of Gram staining that allows to differentiate bacteria in Gram-positive and Gram-negative is discoloration by ###. A. Sulfuric acid B. Lugol’s iodine C. Water +D. Ethyl alcohol E. Heating 62. Choose acid-fast microorganisms: A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Clostridium perfringens +C. Mycobacterium leprae D. E. coli +E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis F. Bacillus anthracis 63. Choose non acid-fast microorganisms: +À. Corynebacterium diphtheriae +B. Clostridium perfringens C. Mycobacterium leprae +D. Escherichia coli E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 64. Name the property of bacterial cells that depend upon high content of lipids, wax, mycolic acids in the cell? ### +Acid-fast 65. Protection of bacteria from drying, phagocytosis and ability to adhere to various surfaces are functions of: A. Spore B. Flagella C. Nucleoid +D. Capsule E. Mesosome 66. Choose substances usingfor Ziehl-Neelsen staining: A. Gentian violet +B. Methylene blue +C. carbolic fuchsine +D. Ethyl alcohol E. 0.5 % acetic acid +F. 5 % sulfuric acid 67. During Ziehl-Neelsen staining, carbolic fuchsine and heating are used to: A. Kill microorganisms B. Attach microorganisms to the glass +C. Lose a tight layer and facilitate the penetration of dye and its interaction with a cell wall D. Neutralize previously applied dye 68. What component of the bacterial cell does appear as colorless bezel around the red bodies of the bacteria in black backgroundwhen stained by Burri-Gins? ### +Capsul* 69. The functions of bacterial ### are protection from drying, phagocytosis and antibodies action. +Capsul* 70. Choose possible materials of bacterial capsule composition: +A. Polysaccharides B. Lipid +C. Peptide D. Lipopolisaccharide E. Histone proteins 71. Capsules of most of the microorganisms consist of ###. (Substance) +Polysaccharid* 72. Microcapsule differs from macrocapsule in: +A. Thickness +B. Detection by Burri-Gins method C. Lipopolysaccharides content D. All of above are correct 73. Choose characteristics of macrocapsule (true capsule): +A. Size is larger than the diameter of the bacterial cells +B. Ordered fibrillar structure +C. Tight adhesion to the cell wall +D. Microscope indication by Burri-Gins stain E. Nucleoproteids composition F. All of above are correct 74. Choose characteristics of Burry-Gins staining: A. Ink and fuchsine are applied on fixed glass slide +B. A drop of culture is mixed with the ink. Fixed smear of the mixture is stained with fuchsine C. Fixed slide is treated with acetic methylene blue. Then slide is stained with chrysoidin D. A “hanging” or “crushed” drop with the addition of fuchsine is prepared 75. Choose substances used during Burry-Gins staining: A. Gentian violet B. Methylene blue +C. Ink D. Chrysoidin +E. Diluted fuchsine F. Ethyl alcohol 76. ###bodies of bacterial cells are responsible for energy and nutrients storing. (Put correct word) +Inclusi* 77. Diphtheria rods contain volutine grains: +A. On the poles of the cell in the cytoplasm B. In the center of the cell in the cytoplasm C. In the cell wall D. In nucleoide 78. Choose microorganisms that are not obligate intracellular parasites: A. Rickettsia +B. Mycobacteria C. Chlamydia D. Viruses E. Toxoplasma 79. Chlamydia and Rickettsia are obligate intracellular parasites because: A. They grow only on media with human blood or serum +B. They are not able to synthesize high-energy compounds so energy metabolism is carried out only inside host cells C. They do not have their own metabolic activity D. They are not able to reproduce by binary fission 80. Choose structural components that Rickettsia do not have: A. Nucleoid B. Ribosomes +C. Spores, flagella D. Cytoplasm E. Cell wall F. Cytoplasmic membrane 81. Choose disease that is caused by Rickettsia: A. Typhoid fever +B. Epidemic typhus C. Relapsing fever D. Whooping cough E. Diphtheria F. Trachoma 82. Choose morphological forms presented in Chlamydia infection causative agentsonly: A. Nucleoid B. Cytoplasmic membrane, cytoplasm C. Ribosomes D. Distinct capsule E. Flagella, pili +F. Elementarybodies and reticulateones 83. Choose functions of bacterial spores: A. Way of reproduction B. Nutrients storing +C. Preservation of species, protection from external action D. Protect from phagocytosis E. Participate in metabolism F. Participate in breathing 84. Choose bacteria spore-forming conditions: A. When bacteria get into the human or animal body +B. When factors of the external environment are unfavorable C. Both are correct 85. Minimal content of free water, high lipid content, high content of calcium salts, the presence of dipicolinic acid determine the stability of the ### of bacteria in the environment: +Spore* 86. What morphological groups of bacteria can form spores? ### +Rod* 87. What group of bacteria (according to their shape) can form spores? À. Spherical-shaped +B. Rod-shaped C. Spiral-shaped D. Branching 88. Choose microorganisms that cannot form spores: A. Bacillus anthracis B. Clostridium perfringens +C. Salmonella typhi D. Clostridium tetani E. Clostridium botulinum 89. Choose microorganisms that can form spores: A. Vibrio cholerae +B. Clostridium perfringens C. Corónebacterium diphtheria +D. Clostridium botulinum E. Staphylococcus aureus F. All of above are correct 90. Choose non spore-forming microorganisms: A. Clostridium botulinum +B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis +C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Clostridium tetani E. Bacillus anthracis 93. Rod-shaped spore-forming microorganisms are included into genera : +A. Bacillus +B. Clostridium C. Corynebacterium D. Borrelia 94. Name the microorganisms with spore smaller than a bacterial cell in diameter. ### +Bacill* 95. Name the microorganisms with spore larger than a bacterial cell in diameter. ### +Clostridi* 96. Choose the Genus of spore-forming microorganisms with spore smaller than a bacterial cell in diameter: A. Clostridium B. Corónebacterium +C. Bacillus D. Mycobacterium E. Staphylococcus F. Escherichia 97. Choose the Genus of spore-forming microorganisms with spore bigger than a bacterial cell in diameter: +A. Clostridium B. Corónebacterium C. Bacillus D. Mycobacterium E. Staphylococcus F. Escherichia 98. Name the microorganisms (Latin) with terminal- located spore. ### ### +Clostridium tetani 99. Choose bacteria with subterminal-located (rarely central) spore bigger that a cell diameter: A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Corónebacterium diphtheriae +C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium tetani +E. Clostridium botulinum F. Bacillus anthracis 100. ### bacteria have central-located spore smaller than bacteria diameter that don't deform the cell. +Bacill* 101. Choose structural components that Spirochetes do not have: +A. Flagella, spores B. Nucleoid C. Ribosomes D. Cytoplasm, CPM E. Cell wall F. Endoflagella 102. Spirochetes move due to: A. Flagella +B. Endoflagella C. Pili D. Adhesins 103. Name Spirochetes genus (Latin) that is characterized by numerous primary curvs and the secondary curvs in the forms of letters S and C. ### +Leptospir* 104. Name Spirochetes genus (Latin) that is characterized by 3-10 large uneven curvs.### +Borreli* 105. Name Spirochetes genus (Latin) that is characterized by 8-12 small even curvs. ### +Treponema* 106. Name Spirochetes genus that shows pale pink color in Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ### +Treponema* 107. Name Spirochetes genus that shows blue-purple color in Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ### +Borreli* 108. Human pathogenic Spirochetes belong to genera Treponema, Borrelia and ### . +Leptospira* 109. Choose Spirochetes genus that is characterized by presence of the secondary curves in the forms of letters S and C: +A. Leptospira B. Borrelia C. Treponema D. Vibrio E. Actinomyces 110. Choose color of Treponema pallidum according to results of Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ### A. Blue B. Green +C. Pale pink D. Violet E. Black 111. Choose color of Borrelia reccurentis according to results of Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ### +A. Blue-purple B. Green C. Pale pink D. Yellow E. Black 112. Choose color of Leptospira interrogans according to results of Romanowsky-Giemsa stain. ### A. Blue B. Green +C. Yellow D. Pink E. Orange 113. Choose Treponema species that is pathogenic for human: +À. Treponema pallidum B. Treponema macrodentium C. Treponema denticola D. Treponema orale 114. Human pathogenic species of Spirochetes belong to 3 genera: Treponema, Borrelia and ### A. Clostridium +B. Leptospira C. Corynebacterium D. Vibrio E. Escherichia 115. Syphilis, relapsing fever, leptospirosis are diseases caused by pathogenic ###. +Spirochet* 116. Bacterial flagella are built from ###: A. Pillin +B. Flagellin C. Miosin D. Actin E. Porin 117. The fastest moving group of flagellate microorganisms: +A. Monotrichous B. Lophotrichous C. Amphitrichous D. Peritrichous 118. The slowest moving group of flagellate microorganisms: A. Monotrichous B. Lophotrichous C. Amphitrichous +D. Peritrichous 119. A culture of microorganisms of the same species obtained from a single bacterial cell is a ### ###. +Pure culture 120. A species population isolated from different sources or from one object at different times is called ###. +Strain* 121. ### ### is a set of bacteria cells of the same species grown on nutrient medium. +Pure culture 122. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species, shape and bacteria arrangement in a smear: 1) Neisseria meningitidis 2) Staphylococcus epidermidis 3) Bacillus anthracis +1. The bean-shaped diplococci +2. Cocci arranged in grape-like clusters +3. Large rods arranged in the chain (Streptobacillus) 123. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and Gram staining: 1) Vibrio cholera 2) Treponema pallidum 3) Corynebacterium diphtheriae +2. Gram staining is not used +1. Gram-negative +3. Gram-positive 124. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and spore location: 1) Clostridium perfringens 2) Bacillus anthracis 3) Clostridium tetani 4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis +4. Non-spore forming +1. Sub-terminal, in the form of “spindles” +2. Central +3. Terminal, in the form of “drum sticks” 125. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and capsule: 1) Staphylococcus aureus 2) Bacillus anthracis 3) Neisseria meningitides 4) Escherichia coli +4. No capsule +1. Microcapsule +3. Distinct polysaccharide capsule +2. Distinct peptid containing capsule 126. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and disease: 1) Coxiella burneti 2) Salmonella Typhi 3) Borrelia recurrentis +2. Typhoid fever +1. Q-fever +3. Relapsing fever 127. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and bacteria arrangement in a smear: 1) E. coli 2) Corinebacterium diphtheriae 3) Streptococcus pyogenes 4) Neisseria meningitidis +4. In pairs +3. Chain +2. At an angle forming letters X, V +1. Randomly 128. Óñòàíîâèòå ñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between microorganism species and means of motility: 1) Spirochetes 2) Vibrio 3) Chlamydia 4) Escherichia coli +2. Monotrichious located flagella +3. Non-motile +1. Endoflagella +4. Peritrichious located flagella 129. Establish a correspondence between structure or properties of microorganisms and diseases caused by these microbes: 1) Volutine granules, 2) Acid-fastness, 3) Motility +3. Cholera +1. Diphtheria +2. Tuberculosis, leprosy 130. The main tasks of medical Microbiology: +A. Study of human pathogenic microorganisms B. Study of virus animal diseases pathogens and methods of their diagnostics and prevention C. Development of methods of prevention of infectious diseases spreading D. Development of methods of etiotropic treatment of infectious diseases E. Study of microorganisms involved in the synthesis of biologically active compounds, and study of biotechnologies for their production F. Study of microorganisms involved in matter cycling G. All of above are correct 131. Choose characteristics of microorganisms that are not in the basis of modern taxonomy: A. Morphological B. Serological C. Biochemical G. Physiological D. Molecular biological +E. Clinical 132. Choose microorganisms: +A. Prokaryotes B. Prions +C. Eukaryotes +D. Viruses E. All of above are correct 133. Choose cellular microorganisms: +A. True bacteria (eubacteria) B. Prions +C. Archaebacteria +D. Eukaryotes E. Viruses F. All of above are correct 134. Domain “Eucarya” (eukaryotes) includes: +À. Fungi +B. Protozoa C. Bacteria D. All of above are correct 135. Choose prokaryotic domains: À. Fungi +B. Bacteria +C. Archaea D. All of above are correct 136. Preservation of genetic information, participation in cell division are functions of bacterial: A. Mesosomes B. Ribosomes +C. Nucleoid D. Nucleus E. Spore F. Cytoplasm 137. Choose main functions of bacterial spore: A. Provides adhesiveness +B. Protects from adverse environmental factors C. Participates in genetic material transfer process D. Produce enzymes 138. What method of staining is used for capsule detection ? ### +Burri-Gins 139. Choose organoids that prokaryotic cells do not have: A. Plasmid B. Mesosoma +C. Mitochondria D. Nucleoid 140. Choose organoids that eukaryotic cells do not have: A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic reticulum +C. Plasmid D. Nucleus 141. Plasmids are typical for ###: A. Prions B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Protozoa +E. Bacteria 142. Choose functions of intracellular inclusions of bacterial cells: A. Protection from phagocytosis B. Protection from adverse environmental factors +C. Source of nutrients D. Source of oxygen E. Place of sporulation 143. Flagella are built from protein called ###. +Flagellin 144. Name the disease caused by microorganism have the highest speed among bacteria: A.Meningitis B. Syphilis +C. Cholera D.Salmonellosis E.Tetanus F.Scarlet fever 145. Method of staining used for identification of acid-fast bacteria: A. Burri-Gins method B. Gram staining C. Romanowsky-Giemsa staining +D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 146. Method of staining used for identification of encapsulated bacteria: +A. Burri-Gins method B. Gram staining C. Romanowsky-Giemsa staining D. Ziehl-Neelsen staining 147. Acid-fast bacteria are detected with ### method. +Ziehl-Neelsen 148. Bacterial capsules are stained by Burri-Gins method : A. Purple B. Red +C. Not painted D. Blue E. Yellow 149. Acid-fast bacteria are stained by Ziehl-Neelsen method in ### color. +Red 150. Non acid-fast bacteria are stained by Ziehl-Neelsen method in ### color. +Blue 151. The main chemical component of bacteria cell wall is ###. +peptidoglycan 152. In microscope slides Streptococci are arranged: A. In grape-like clusters B. In pairs +C. In chains D. In tetrads E. In the form of packages 153. Optical microscope provides a magnification of bacteria in: +A. 1000x B. 10000x C. 100000x 154. In immersion microscopy is used the objective lens of ### magnification. +100* 155. A drop of ### is applied on glass slide to microscopic examination of bacteria. +Oil 156. What type of microscope is used to distinguish cellular structures with nanometric size? ### +Electronic 157. Immersion oil is used with objective lens of ### magnification. +100* 158. The cell wall of Gram-### bacteria contains 1-3 layers of peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharides. +Negative 159. The result of bacteria staining by Gram method depends on the type of ### ### presence. +Cell wall 160. Gram-negative bacteria with partially absent of cell wall and unable to reproduce are called ###. +protoplast* 161. What is pure culture of bacteria: À. A culture of microorganisms of the same species obtained from a single bacterial cell +B. Set of individuals of the same species of microbes grown on nutrient medium C. A species population isolated from different sources or from one object at different times 162. What is bacterial colony: +À. A culture of microorganisms of the same species obtained from a single bacterial cell B. Set of individuals of the same species of microbes grown on nutrient medium C. A species population isolated from different sources or from one object at different times 163. What is strain: À. A culture of microorganisms of the same species obtained from a single bacterial cell B. Set of individuals of the same species of microbes grown on nutrient medium +C. A species population isolated from different sources or from one object at different times 164. Choose optional component of bacterial cell structure: A. Nucleoid +B. Capsule C. Cytoplasmic membrane 165. Choose characteristics of smear preparation: A. Drying after fixation B. Staining after drying +C. Fixation after drying D. Fixation after staining E. All of the answers are wrong 166. Discoloration by ### is the stage of Gram staining that allows to differ bacteria in Gram-positive and Gram-negative. +alcohol 167. Attaching of the smear to the glass, killing bacteria and making them more susceptible to a dye are purposes of: +A. Fixation B. Discoloration C. Both are correct 167. Spherical bacteria arranged in chains are called ###. +Streptococc* 169. Spherical bacteria arranged grape-like clusters are called ###. +Staphylococc* 170. Choose spore-forming bacteria: +A. Botulism causative agents B. Typhoid bacillus C. Escherichia coli D. Vibrio cholerae 171. Choose non spore-forming bacteria: +A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Clostridium perfringens C. Bacillus anthracis +D. Shigella dysenteriae 172. Gram-negative bacteria are stained in ### colour by Gram staining. +red 173. Spherical bacteria arranged in packages are called ###. +Sarcina 174. Name the bacteria existing in the form of elementary body and reticulate one that can reproduce within the host cell only. ### +Chlamydia 175. Undulating membrane, cilia and pseudopodia are motility organelles of ###. +Protozoa 176. Causative agent of ### has the highest speed. +Cholera 177. The body of a fungus composed of interwoven threads (hyphae) is called ###. +Mycelium 178. Higher fungi are those which have ### mycelium. +Septate 179. Single-celled fungi which are usually round in shape are called ###. +Yeast 180. Name Gram-positive soil bacteria growing in the form of thin filaments resembling the fungi mycelium, antibiotics producers. +Actinomycet* 181. ### differ from most of bacteria in cell wall absence. +Mycoplasma 182. Name bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites causing eyes and urogenital tract lesions in humans. ### +Chlamydia 183. The mobility of the most of bacteria is due to ### presence. +Flagell* 184. The purposes of ### are the following: attaching of the smear to the glass, killing of bacteria and making them more susceptible to a dye. +Fixation 185. The presence of a membrane bound nucleus is not typical for ###. +Prokaryotes 186. Gram-negative bacteria do not have ### acids in the cell wall unlike Gram-positive bacteria. +Teichoic 187. What is the most homogenious taxon of prokaryotes ? ### +Species 188. Microorganisms can not differ within the species in : +A. Gram-stain B. Virulence C. Antigenic structure D. Biochemical properties E. Bacteriophage sensetivity 189. The bundle of shrinking fibers extending along the microbial cells in the periplasmic space and performing locomotor functions is characteristic of ### bacteria. +Spirochet* 190. Amphitrichious bacteria are those with bipolar located ###. +Flagella 191. Mycosis is infectious disease caused by pathogenic ###. +Fung* 192. Protein-like infectious particles without nucleic acids are called ###. +Prions 193. The fungi sporulation is the way of ###. +Reproduction 194. Choose features of opportunistic microorganisms (compared with the strictly pathogenic microorganisms): +A. have low virulence to humans or show it only under certain conditions B. cause dangerous infections +C. don't have a strict organ tropism, that is they can cause infectious inflammation in any organs and tissues +D. are able to penetrate the macroorganism almost all possible mechanisms and pathways E. have a high variability in the environment 195. Essential component of bacterial cell consisting of colloid phase, DNA, RNA and ribosomes is called ###. +Cytoplasm 196. Most of microorganisms form capsule, consisting of: A. Lipid B. Lipopolisaccharide +C. Polysaccharides D. Peptide E. Histone proteins 197. What shapes of bacteria are able to sporulate? ### +Rod* 198. What property of microbial cells is due to high content of lipids, wax, phtionic acids and mycolic acids in the cell wall? ### ### À. Resistance to antibiotics B. Motility C. Ability to endospore formation D. Ability to form a pseudocyst +E. Acid-fastness 199. High content of calcium salts, the presence of dipicolinic acid are features of bacterial ###: À. Capsule +B. Spore C. Endoflagella D. Flagella 200. Mycota is a scientific name of ###. +Fung* 201. Single-celled fungi round shaped are called ###. A. Molds +B. Yeasts C. Both are correct 202. Choose characteristics of viruses: A. Cellular structure +B. DNA or RNA presence C. DNA and RNA presence +D. Intracellular parasitism +E. Absence of protein synthesis system and accumulating energy system 203. Viruses differ from bacteria in: A. Size B. Way of reproduction C. Respiration absence +D. All of above are correct 204. Choose characteristics of virion: +A. Nucleocapsid B. Mitochondria C. Intracellular inclusions D. Nucleus 205. Virion is: A. Active form of the virus +B. Inactive form of the virus C. Pure viruses culture +D. Extracellular form E. Accumulation of viruses 206. Choose characteristics of simple viruses: +A. Genome B. Nucleus +C. Capsid shell D. Matrix proteins E. Mitochondria 207. Choose characteristics of complex viruses: +A. DNA or RNA B. Nucleoid +C. Supercasid shell D. Cell wall 208. Viral reproduction is based on: A. Division B. Conjugation C. Mitosis +D. Disjunction D. Segmentation 209. Choose growth media for viruses: A. Loewenstein-Jensen medium +B. Developing chick enembryo C. 199 medium +D. Tissue culture cells +E. Body of the sensitive laboratory animal 210. Choose the main pathogenicity factors of Gram-negative bacteria: A. Spores +B. Endotoxin C.Cytoplasm D.Inclusions E.Flagella 211. Choose the main pathogenicity factors of Gram-positive bacteria: A. Cell form B. Spores +C. Exotoxin D. Endotoxin E. Flagella 212. Choose microorganisms pathogenicity measure: +A. Virulence B. Specificity C. Commensalism D. Organitropic factor E. Parasitism 213. Choose possible sources of infection: A. Dirty dishes B. Domestic usage +C. Bacilli carrier D. Milk E. Toys 214. Choose the term that characterizes the pathogen circulation in the bloodstream: A. Exogenous infection B. Autoinfection C. Reinfection +D. Bacteremia E. Sepsis 215. Choose the term characterized by pathogens circulation and reproduction in the bloodstream: A. Exogenous infection B. Autoinfection C. Reinfection D. Bacteremia +E. Sepsis 216. Repeated symptoms of infectious disease caused by the same pathogen without repeated contamination is called: A. Monoinfection B. Secondary infection C. Superinfection +D. Relapse E. Reinfection B. Sources of hydrogen and oxygen Ñ. Sources of carbon and oxygen Â. Sources of carbon and nitrogen, amino acids, blood serum 217. Name the microbes which require the presence of oxygen in the environment ###. +aerobe* 218. Name the microbes that exist only in anoxic conditions ###. +anaerobes 219. Choose impossible mechanism of nutrients transport into the cell: A. Active transport B. Simple diffusion +C. Transduction D. Facilitated diffusion 220. Choose process with bacteriophage participation: A. Reparation +B. Transduction C. Transformation D. Conjugation 221. Choose treatment that do not use for complete sterilization : +A. Boiling B. Treatment with dry heat C. Treatment with steam under pressure D. Irradiation by Gamma rays 222. Choose treatment that is used to sterilize disposable instruments in industry: A. Steam under pressure B. Fluid vapor C. Dry heat +D. Gamma radiation 223. Choose bacteria that are not sanitary significant microbes of water: A. General coliform bacteria B. Thermotolerant coliform bacteria C. Coli-phages +D. Hemolytic Streptococci 224. Choose antibiotics violating the synthesis of peptidoglycan: +A. Ampicillin, oxacillin, penicillin B. Tetracycline, oleandomycin, cephalosporins C. Erythromycin, chloramphenicol, polymixin 225. Choose fluoroquinolones action mechanism: A. Violation of protein synthesis on the ribosomes of bacterial cells B. Violation of protein synthesis at the transcriptional level +C. Violation of the structure and function of bacterial DNA D. Violation of the permeability of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane 226. The first antibiotic – penicillin was discovered by: A. Ehrlich B. Paster C. Ivanovsky +D. Fleming 227. Choose components of prokaryotic cell: A. Nucleus is morphologically distinct B. Golgi Apparatus C. Nuclear membrane +D. Mesosome E. Mitochondria 228. The morphological study of bacteria requires: A. High-magnification electronic microscope B. Unstained smears +C. Immersion microscopy method D. Low magnification microscope 229. Choose essential components of bacterial cell: A. Flagella +B. Nucleoid C. Spore +D. Cytoplasmic membrane +E. Cytoplasm 230. Choose main forms of bacteria: +A. Spirochetes +B. Cocci +C. Rods D. Vibrio E. Curved 231. Choose basis of cocci classification: A. Size B. Number and location of flagella +C. Division in different planes D. Differences in capsule formation E. Gram staining. 232. Choose characteristics of Streptococci: A. Sporulation +B. Division in one plane C. Presence of flagella D. Grapes-like form +E. Chain-like form 233. Choose characteristics of Bacilli: A. Inclusion of volutine grains +B. Cylindrical shape C. Gram-negative stain +D. Spores +E. Gram-positive stain 234. Choose the stages of stained smear preparation: A. Use of pre-heat killed bacteria +B. Fixation by the flame +C. Drying the smear in air D. Drying the smear in the flame E. Fixation by the drying in air 235. Choose characteristics of a typical bacteria cell: A. Differentiated nucleus +B. Diffuse-located nuclear substance C. Cell wall absence +D. Cytoplasm is surrounded by a multilayered shell E. Presence of spare nutrients in the cytoplasm 236. Choose inclusions of microbial cell: A. Vacuoles +B. Lipid drops +C. Volutin granules D. Ribosomes +E. Glycogen and starch granules 237. Choose characteristics of cytoplasmic membrane: A. Participates in protein synthesis B. Shape bacteria +C. Osmotic barrier of the cell +D. Regulates cell metabolism E. Protects bacteria from negative external influence 238. Acid-fast bacteria are due to: A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Capsules +C. Lipid and wax content D. Carbohydrates E. Ñhitin-like substances 239. Choose stain method that is used to detect acid-fast bacteria: A. Gram stain B. Romanowsky-Giemsa stain +C. Ziehl-Neelsen stain D. Loeffler stain E. Neisser stain 240. Choose bacilli spore significance: A. Reproduction B. Accumulation of reserve nutrients +C. Conservation of the species in adverse conditions D. Protective response when injected into the host E. Sign of cell degeneration 241. Choose sporulation conditions: +A. Unfavorable external environment B. Getting into the human or animal body C. Getting into the soil +D. Prolonged cultivation on nutrient media without reseeding +E. Drying 242. Choose bacteria that are able to sporulate: A. Cocci B. Rickettsia +C. Bacillus D. Viruses +E. Clostridium 243. Choose diseases that are caused by spore-forming causative agents: A. Diphtheria B. Typhoid +C. Tetanus +D. Anthrax +E. Botulism 244. Choose diseases that are caused by non spore-forming causative agents: A. Tetanus +B. Typhoid +C. Tuberculosis +D. Diphtheria E. Botulism 245. Growth and binary fission absence, one type of nucleic acid, absolute intracellular parasitism are characteristics of ### +Virus* 246. 42 nm size is characteristic of viral hepatitis ### germ. +B 247. What is not included into simple virus envelope? ### +Supercapsid 248. Formation of Filatov-Koplik spots inside the mouth is characteristic of ### (name of disease). +Measles 249. The structure of a complex virion includes all, except: A. DNA or RNA +B. Capsule C. Capsid consisting of capsomeres D. Outer shell (supercapsid) 250. Type of symmetry of virion’s capsid where capsomeres follow the curves of nucleic acid is called ###. +Spiral 251. Type of symmetry of virion’s capsid where capsomeres surround nucleic acid in polyhedral shape is called ###. +Cubic 252. Positive RNA strand (RNA +) of viruses surves as: +A. mRNA (transmits information to the ribosomes) B. Antigen C. Antibody 253. Reverse transcriptase, DNA-polymerase and RNA-asa are enzymes of ###. +Retrovirus* 254. Óñòàíîâèòå ïîñëåäîâàòåëüíîñòü The consequence of a virus reproduction stages are : 1)adsorption; 2) transcription, translation of mRNAs and replication of viral genomes; 3)release of viral particles from the cells; 4)virion assembly; 5)penetration of the virus into the cell; 6) deproteinization of virions +1, 5, 6, 2, 4, 3 255. Membranes fusion is the way of penetration of the ### virus into host cells. +complex 266. Name the cell's protein that is formed due to interaction of the cell with an interferonogen (virus, etc.) and can protect cells from further viral infection. ### +Interferon 267. Interferon protects cells from virus infection by: A. Neutralization of the virus +B. Indirectly interrupting information from the virus genome to the ribosomes C. Activate antibodies neutralizing action 268. Choose method that do not use for laboratory diagnosis of viral infections: A. Microscopical (detection of elementary bodies, intracellular inclusions, RIF) B. Virological method (selection, cultivation of viruses in chicken embryo, in cell culture, in laboratory animals) +C. Allergological method D. Serological method E. Detection of viral antigens using highly sensitive reactions (ELISA, RIA, IHT,CIE, PR) F. Nucleic acid probes, PCR 269. Óñòàíîâèòå ïîñëåäîâàòåëüíîñòü: The sequence of the stages of interaction of phages with bacterial cell: 1) adsorption 2) replication of nucleic acid 3) injection of nucleic acid 4)release of matured particles 5) assembly of new particles 6)synthesis of capsid proteins +1, 3, 2, 6, 5, 4 270. ### penetrate into bacterial cell by injecting the nucleic acid through the appendage channel. +Bacteriophage* 271. The type of interaction between bacteriophage and bacterial cell resulting in bacteriophage DNA embedding in the bacterial genome is ### type of infection. +Lisogenic 272. A productive type of infection resulting in the formation of phage progeny and lysis of the bacteria is characteristic of ### bacteriophage. +Virulent 273. Integrative type of infection with the formation of a prophage is characteristic of ### bacteriophage. +Moderate 274. Choose impossible way of bacteriophages practical application: A. Phagotyping of bacteria B. Indication of bacteria in the environment +C. Creation of artificial active immunity D. Application for therapy and prevention of infectious diseases 275. Choose disease that is not treated with bacteriophage medication: +A. Influenza B. Dysentery C. Salmonellosis D. Purulent infection 276. The test used to establish the source of infection with the assistance of typical bacteriophages is called ###. +Phagotyping 277. Diploid number of chromosomes, nuclear membrane, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, histone proteins are characteristics of ### microorganisms. +Eukaryot* 278. Bacteriostatic antimicrobial drugs: +A. Inhibit bacterial growth B. Kill bacteria C. Inhibit bacterial growth and kill them 279. Bactericidal antimicrobial drugs: +A. Kill bacteria B. Inhibit bacterial growth C. Inhibit bacterial growth and kill them 280. Changing or elimination of normal microbiota, interfering with its function as a beneficial colonizer: A. Toxic side effect of antibiotic on host +B. Biologic side effect of antibiotic on host C. Allergic reaction as side effect of antibiotic on host 281. All of following are side effects of antibiotic on bacteria, except: +A. Allergic reaction B. Resistance to antibiotics C. Formation of atypical forms of bacteria 282. The most widely used method of determination of the bacteria susceptibility to the antibiotics which is semi-quantitative test used to classify the test bacteria as resistant or susceptible A. Dilution test B. E-test +C. Disc diffusion test 283. What does mean an appearance of inhibition zone around antibiotic disc? +A. Antibiotic suppressed growth of bacterial culture B. Bacteria suppressed action of the antibiotic 284. According to disc diffusion test, absence of inhibition zone around antibiotic disc means that bacteria is: +A. Resistant to the antibiotic B. Susceptible to the antibiotic 285. All of following are methods of detection of the bacteria susceptibility to the antibiotics, except: A. Dilution test B. Disc diffusion test +C. Settle plate method D. E-test 286. Principle of ##### of antimicrobial drug: antimicrobial drug must harm the microbes without causing signi?cant damage to the host: A. Immunogenicity B. Reversibility C. Antigenicity +D. Selective toxicity 287. The relationship between an agent’s toxicity to the body and its toxicity to an infectious agent: +A. Chemotherapeutic index B. Chemotherapeutic titer C. Antibiotic titer D. Index of toxigenicity 288. The range of different microbes against which an antimicrobial agent acts is called its: A. Antibiotic spectrum B. Spectrum of toxigenicity +C. Spectrum of activity D. Spectrum of toxicity 289. Under the influence of ######, bacteria do not synthesize sufficient amounts of tetrahydrofolic acid: A. Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides B. 4-quinolones C. Rifamycin D. Beta-lactam antibiotics +E. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim 290. All ##### irreversibly block the biosynthesis of murein: +A. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim B. Beta-lactam antibiotics C. Rifamycin D. 4-quinolones E. Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides 291. ### inhibits the DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase (transcription): A. 4-quinolones B. Sulfonamides and trimethoprim C. Beta-lactam antibiotics +D. Rifamycin E. Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides 292. ###### block translation: +A. Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides B. sulfonamides and trimethoprim C. beta-lactam antibiotics D. Rifamycin E. 4-quinolones 293. All ### damage cellular DNA topology by inhibiting bacterial topoisomerases: A. 4-quinolones B. sulfonamides and trimethoprim C. beta-lactam antibiotics D. Rifamycin E. Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and macrolides 294. Host-coded proteins, or glycoproteins, produced in and secreted from virus-infected cells in response to virus infection, synthetic nucleotides, and foreign cells: A. Enzymes B. Exotoxins C. Endotoxins +D. Interferons 295. Those antimicrobial agents that are effective against a great number of microorganisms from a wide range of taxonomic groups, including both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, are said to have a: +A. Broad spectrum of activity B. Narrow spectrum of activity C. Middle spectrum of activity 296. Those antimicrobial agents that are effective against only a small number of microorganisms or a single taxonomic group have a: A. Middle spectrum of activity B. Broad spectrum of activity +C. Narrow spectrum of activity 297. These are three groups of interferons, except: +A. IFN-w B. IFN-? C. IFN-? D. IFN-? 298. ### is produced in the leukocytes infected with virus: A. IFN-? B. IFN-w C. IFN-? +D. IFN-? 299. ### is produced by fibroblasts infected with virus: A. IFN-? +B. IFN-? C. IFN-w D. IFN-? 300. ### is induced by the stimulation of sensitized lymphocytes with antigen or non-sensitized lymphocytes with mitogens: +A. IFN-? B. IFN-? C. IFN-? D. IFN-w 301. ### bind to cell-surface receptors and induce antiviral proteins, leading to the destruction of viral mRNA: A. Exotoxins +B. Interferons C. Endotoxins D. Bacteria 302. Dilutions series tests are quantitative resistance tests used to determine: +A. The minimum inhibitory concentration B. Antibody titer C. Bacterial toxigenicity 303. The term chemotherapy was coined by the: A. Robert Koch B. Alexander Fleming +C. Paul Ehrlich D. Louis Pasteur 304. Using of chemical substances to kill pathogenic organisms without injuring the host: A. Attenuation +B. Chemotherapy C. Vaccination 305. ### discovered the antibacterial properties of Penicillium notatum in 1928, identified the inhibitory agent and named it penicillin: +A. Alexander Fleming B. Paul Ehrlich C. Ernst Chain D. Howard Florey 306. ###### had got purified theraputical drug “penicillinum”: A. Robert Koch B. Paul Ehrlich C. Alexander Fleming and Howard Florey +D. Howard Florey and Ernst Chain 307. The population of microorganisms of single species +A. Pure culture B. Serovar C. Strain D. Biovar 308. A bacterial population consisting of the cells of the single species isolated in space or/and in time from the similar population of the same species A. Mixed culture B. Serovar C. Pure culture +D. Strain E. Colony 309. A bacterial populations proliferated on any artificial medium A. Mixed culture B. Pure culture +C. Culture D. Colony E. Strain 310. A bacterial population on a solid medium descended from the same progenitor cell A. Strain B. Mixed culture +C. Colony D. Biovar 311. Growth of several species of bacteria on the same medium +A. Mixed culture B. Serovar C. Biovar D. Pure culture E. Strain 312. Pure culture is a population of bacteria of one A.Hemovar B. Morphovar C. Biovar D. Serovar +E. Species 313. A pure culture of microorganisms is +A. A culture isolated from single species and grown on a solid nutritious medium B. A culture of single species, isolated from a definite source in definite period of time C. A culture obtained from single microbial cell D. A set of individuals with relatively similar living conditions 314. Cultural properties of bacteria are characterized by A. The intensity of metabolism +B. Morphology of colony C. Bacteria morphology D. The ability to perceive dye E. Type of metabolism 315. The method of reproduction of bacteria A. Mitosis B. Spore formation +C. Binary fission D. L-transformation E. Replication 316. Facultative anaerobes are characterized by ### in liquid medium +A. Diffuse turbidity B. Bottom growth C. Superficial growth D. Formation of colony 317. Death rate exceeds the rate of reproduction in A. Lag phase +B. Death phase C. Stationary phase D. Log phase 318. Phase of introducing of bacteria into new medium and their adaptation to new environmental conditions A. Spore formation phase B. Logarithmic phase C. Stationary phase D. Death phase +E. Lag phase 319. Bacterial population doubles every generation in A. Death phase B. Stationary phase +C. Logarithmic phase D. Spore formation phase E. Lag phase 320. Obligate anaerobes are characterized by ### in liquid medium A. Diffuse turbidity +B. Bottom growth C. Superficial growth D. Formation of colony 321. Bacteria are most sensitive to antibiotics in A. Spore formation phase B. Stationary phase C. Death phase +D. Logarithmic phase E. Lag phase 322. Bacteria are most sensitive to anti-microbial agents in +A. Logarithmic phase B. Stationary phase C. Death phase D. Spore formation phase E. Lag phase 323. Bacteria are most sensitive to adverse conditions in +A. Logarithmic phase B. Stationary phase C. Death phase D. Spore formation phase E. Lag phase 324. Stage characterized by maximum speed of growth A. Stationary phase +B. Log phase C. Death phase D. Lag phase 325. Obligate aerobes are characterized by ### in liquid medium A. Formation of colony B. Diffuse turbidity C. Bottom growth +D. Superficial growth 326. Stage characterized by the balance between the death rate and rate of reproduction A. Death phase +B. Stationary phase C. Lag phase D. Log phase 327. Stage characterized by appearance of limiting factors +A. Stationary phase B. Death phase C. Lag phase D. Log phase 328. Spore-forming bacteria can form endospores in A. Lag phase B. Death phase +C. Stationary phase D. Log phase 329. Bacteria form ### during of growth on a solid medium +A. Colonies B. Sediment C. Film D. Turbidity 330. Diffuse turbidity in liquid medium is typical for A. Obligate aerobes B. Obligate anaerobes C. Microaerophilic bacteria +D. Facultative anaerobes 331. Bottom growth on liquid medium is typical for A. Facultative anaerobes +B. Obligate anaerobes C. Microaerophilic bacteria D. Obligate aerobes 332. Superficial growth on liquid medium is typical for +A. Obligate aerobes B. Facultative anaerobes C. Microaerophilic bacteria D. Obligate anaerobes 333. Choose characteristics of R-colonies of bacteria +A. Rugged edge B. Viscous C. Convex D. With a shiny surface 334. Choose characteristics of R-colonies of bacteria A. Viscous B. Convex C. With a shiny surface +D. Rough surface 335. Choose characteristics of S-colonies of bacteria A. Uneven edge B. Rugged surface +C. Convex, shiny D. Turbidity 336. Choose characteristics of S-colonies of bacteria +A. Smooth surface B. Uneven edge C. Rugged surface D. Turbidity 337. Most pathogenic bacteria belong to ### according to optimal growth temperature A. Thermophiles +B. Mesophiles C. Psychrophiles 338. ### are used in the production of probiotics A. Rickettsia B. Shigella C. Chlamydia +D. Lactobacilli 339. The most common reason of the dysbacteriosis A. Eating disorders B. Long-lasting infection +C. Antibiotics D. High blood pressure 340. Probiotics contain +A. Live strains of representatives of normal microbiota B. Bacterial metabolic products C. Substances that stimulate the development of normal microbiota D. Live strains of bacteria 341. Probiotics are +A. Representatives of normal microbiota B. Bacteriophages C. Vaccines D. Allergens E. Vitamins 342. All of following are the reasons for the development of intestinal dysbiosis, except for A. Hormone therapy B. Antibiotic therapy C. Gastrointestinal diseases D. Endocrine disorders +E. Taking probiotics 343. Dysbiosis is A. Inherited B. Infectious disease +C. Disorder of the quantitative and qualitative composition of microbiota D. Transmitted by contact way 344. All of following are the positive functions of normal human microbiota, except for A. Secretory B. Vitamin-forming +C. Toxigenic D. Antagonistic 345. The optimal temperature for the cultivation of psychrophilic bacteria +A. 6–30°C B. 30–40°C C. 40–50°C 346. The optimal temperature for the cultivation of mesophilic bacteria A. 6–30°C +B. 30–40°C C. 40–50°C 347. The optimal temperature for the cultivation of thermophilic bacteria A. 6–30°C B. 30–40°C +C. 40–50°C 348. Resident microbiota doesn’t include +A. Transient microbiota B. Obligatory microbiota C. Facultative microbiota 349. ### studies the microbiota of human organism A. Immunology B. Exomicroecology +C. Endomicroecology D. Sanitary microbiology 350. All of following preparations are probiotics, except for +A. Nystatinum B. Bifidobacterinum C. Coli bacterinum D. Lactobacterinum 351. All of following preparations are probiotics, except for A. Coli bacterinum B. Bifidobacterinum +C. Nystatinum D. Bificolum 352. All of following preparations are probiotics, except for A. Bificolum +B. Levorinum C. Coli bacterinum D. Lactobacterinum 353. All of following preparations are probiotics, except for A. Lactobacterinum B. Bificolum C. Bifidobacterinum +D. Mycoheptinum 354. Obligate colon microbiota of human includes all of following microbes, except for A. Bifidobacterium B. E. coli +C. Klebsiella D. Lactobacilli 355. Eubiosis is +A. Dynamic equilibrium between representatives of normal microbiota with each other and with the human body B. A set of protective factors of the organism and the properties of the normal intestinal microbiota, which prevent the colonization of mucous membranes by pathogenic microorganisms C. Selective elimination of anaerobic bacteria and fungi from the digestive tract to increase the body's resistance 356. The process of destroying infectious agents directed on the pathogenic microbes A. Sterilization B. Disinfectant C. Antisepsis +D. Disinfection 357. The agent, which is usually a chemical that kills the growing organism on an environmental object A. Antiseptic +B. Disinfectant C. Sterilization D. Disinfection 358. A process of destruction or complete removal of all kinds of microorganisms including spores A. Disinfectant B. Disinfection +C. Sterilization D. Antisepsis 359. The method known as cold sterilization used gamma rays & x-rays +A. Ionizing radiation B. Filtration C. Pasteurization D. Non-ionizing radiation 360. The method known as cold sterilization used ultraviolet light A. Filtration B. Ionizing radiation +C. Non-ionizing radiation D. Pasteurization 361. Radiation method used on substances that could be damaged by heat (f.ex. plastic Petri dishes): A. Pasteurization +B. Ionizing radiation C. Non-ionizing radiation D. Filtration 362. Radiation method used to reduce microbial populations in the air of hospital rooms, nurseries, operating rooms +A. Non-ionizing radiation B. Pasteurization C. Filtration D. Ionizing radiation 363. Choose correct variant +A. The high temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in sterilization to kill bacteria B. The lower temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in sterilization to kill bacteria C. The high temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in sterilization to inhibit growth of bacteria D. The high temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in sterilization to kill bacteria 364. Choose correct variant A. The lower temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in sterilization to kill bacteria B. The lower temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in sterilization to kill bacteria C. The high temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in sterilization to inhibit growth of bacteria +D. The high temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in sterilization to kill bacteria 365. Choose correct variant A. The high temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in conservation to inhibit growth of bacteria +B. The lower temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in conservation to inhibit growth of bacteria C. The lower temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in conservation to kill bacteria D. The high temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in conservation to inhibit growth of bacteria 366. Choose correct variant A. The lower temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in conservation to kill bacteria B. The lower temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in conservation to inhibit growth of bacteria and kill them C. The lower temperature is used as the bactericidal factor in conservation to inhibit growth of bacteria +D. The lower temperature is used as the bacteriostatic factor in conservation to inhibit growth of bacteria 367. Sanitary indicator microorganisms for the air are +A. Staphylococcus aureus B. E. coli C. Lactobacilli D. Bacilli 368. The indicator of recent fecal pollution of soil is +A. E. coli B. Vibrio cholerae C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus aureus 369. Criteria defined in the air A. Coli-titer B. Coli index +C. Total microbial number 370. The composition of the microbiota of the soil does not depend on the A. pH B. Type of soil +C. Smell of the soil D. Ambient temperature 371. Sanitary indicator microorganisms should have the following properties, except +A. Should actively multiply in the environment B. Should be more resistant than pathogens to the stresses of the environment C.A sufficient number D. Must not multiply in the environment 372. ### studies the microbiota into environment and its influence the human health A. Exomicroecology B. Endomicroecology +C. Sanitary microbiology D. Immunology 373. ### studies the microbiota into environment and its influence the human health A. Endomicroecology B. Immunology C. Exomicroecology +D. Public health microbiology 374. Choose standard coli index of potable water +A. Not more than 3 coli-bacterium B. Not more than 10 coli-bacterium C. Not more than 100 coli-bacterium 375. Choose standard total microbial number of potable water A. Less than 100 microbial cells per ml +B. Less than 50 microbial cells per ml C. More than 50 microbial cells per ml D. Less than 10 microbial cells per ml 376. Choose standard coli-titer of potable water A. Not less than 250ml containing 1 coli-bacterium B. Not less than 30ml containing 1 coli-bacterium C. Not less than 100ml containing 1 coli-bacterium +D. Not less than 300ml containing 1 coli-bacterium 377. All of following microbes are sanitary indicator microorganisms of fecal pollution, except for +A. Staphylococcus aureus B. E.coli C. Streptococcus faecalis 378. Bacteria – indicators of respiratory pollution A. Lactobacilli +B. Staphylococci C. E. coli D. Bifidobacterium 379. Bacteria – indicators of respiratory pollution A. Bifidobacterium B. Lactobacilli C. E. coli +D. Streptococci 380. The total number of all species permanently living into the same biotope is called A. Biofilm +B. Microbiota C. Coli-titer D. Coli index 381. Sanitary indicator microorganisms for the air are +A. Hemolytic streptococci B. Clostridia C. Thermophilic bacteria D. Coliforms 382. Sanitary indicator microorganisms for the air A. Clostridia +B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Thermophilic bacteria D. Coliforms 383. Bacteria – indicators of fecal pollution +A. Streptococcus faecalis B. Thermophilic bacteria C. Staphylococcus aureus 384. Sanitary-bacteriological testing of water does not include A. Indication of bacteriophage B. Determining of total microbial number +C. Aspiration method 385. Coli-titer of water is +A. The minimal volume of water in which present 1 coli-bacterium B. The minimal volume of water in which present Staphylococcus aureus C. The minimal volume of water in which present Enterococcus faecalis 386. The main properties that sanitary indicator microorganisms should have is/are A. The ability to grow at 20°C +B. Sufficient numbers C. The ability to grow on complex nutrient media 387. Choose characteristics of the total microbial number +A. The total number of microbes contained in a unit of volume or mass of the testing sample B. Characterizes the presence of sanitary indicator microorganisms C. The number of sanitary indicator microorganisms contained in a unit of volume or mass of the testing sample 388. Choose characteristics of the total microbial number A. The number of sanitary indicator microorganisms contained in a unit of volume or mass of the testing sample B. Characterizes the presence of sanitary indicator microorganisms +C. Characterizes the general microbial contamination of the object 389. Sanitary indicator microorganisms for soil are all of following microbes, except +A. Hemolytic streptococci B. C. perfringens C. Coliforms 390. Sanitary indicator microorganisms for soil are all of following microbes, except A. Coliforms B. C. perfringens +C. Staphylococci 391. Presence of ##### is forbidden in the air of operating rooms +A. Staphylococcus aureus and any fungi B. Lactobacilli C. Only fungi D. Only Staphylococcus aureus 392. Standards of total microbial number of indoor air of operating rooms A. 100 m.c./cubic meter – before beginning of the work; 150 m.c./cubic meter – during working B. 500 m.c./cubic meter – before beginning of the work; 200 m.c./cubic meter – during working C. 50 m.c./cubic meter – before beginning of the work; 20 m.c./cubic meter – during working +D. 200 m.c./cubic meter – before beginning of the work; 500 m.c./cubic meter – during working 393. Name the method using opened Petri plates placed on the table for determining the microbial content of the air A. Filtration method +B. Sedimentation method by Koch C. Separation method D. Aspiration method 394. Name the method using air-sampling device for determining the microbial content of the air A. Filtration method B. Sedimentation method by Koch +C. Aspiration method D. Separation method 395. Name cultural medium used for Staphylococcus aureus determining in the air +A. Yolk-salt agar B. Endo agar C. Kitt-Tarocci medium D. Simple nutritious agar 396. Persistence of viral genome embedded into host chromosome as a provirus, and the survival of infected cell A. Productive infection +B. Integrative infection C. Abortive infection 397. All of following are stages of bacteriophage reproduction, except A. Biosynthesis of viral components B. Adhesion C. Penetration +D. Deproteinization E. Release F. Assembly of virions 398. Choose selective culture medium +A. Yolk salt agar B. Endo agar C. Meat peptone agar (MPA) D. Meat-peptone broth (BCH) 399. The density of the medium is due to the presence in the medium A. Casein B. Glucose +C. Agar-agar D. Saline sodium chloride 400. Choose simple nutrient medium +A. Meat peptone agar (MPA) B. Yolk salt agar C. Endo agar D. Serum broth 401. Choose the nutrient media that are used to determine the biochemical properties of bacteria A. Blood agar B. Thioglycolic medium C. Peptone water D. Serum agar +E. Hiss (Giss) media 402. What are endoenzymes? +A. Enzymes localized and functioning inside a bacterial cell B. Enzymes belonging to the classes of hydrolases and oxidoreductases C. Enzymes secreted by microbes into the environment 403. Choose the nutrient media that are used to selectively isolate a pure bacterial culture of a particular species A. Differential B. Universal C. Enrichment +D. Selective 404. Choose a nutrient medium that is used for the cultivation of anaerobes: +A. Kitt-Tarocci medium B. Peptone water C. Serum agar D. Blood agar E. Hiss (Giss) media 405. What are exoenzymes? +A. Enzymes secreted by microbes into the environment B. Enzymes belonging to the classes of hydrolases and oxidoreductases C. Enzymes localized and functioning inside a bacterial cell 406. How many ATP molecules are synthesized during aerobic cellular respiration? A. 2 B. 12 C. 24 +D. 38 407. Anabolism is +A. Synthesis of high molecular weight compounds that are used to form cell structures B. The breakdown of various substances to produce energy that is stored in the cell in the form of ATP C. The totality of all chemical transformations occurring in the cell 408. Catabolism is A. Synthesis of high molecular weight compounds that are used to form cell structures +B. The breakdown of various substances to produce energy that is stored in the cell in the form of ATP C. The totality of all chemical transformations occurring in the cell 409. Choose microorganisms that don’t use oxygen to break down complex organic substances into simple ones A. Microaerophiles B. Strict aerobes +C. Strict anaerobes D. Aerotolerant 410. Differentiation of the properties of bacteria on the Endo medium is based on A. Indole formation B. Breakdown of peptone C. Fermentation of sucrose D. Fermentation of glucose +E. Fermentation of lactose 411.Depending on carbon source prokaryotes are subdivided into two groups. Choose these groups A. Prototrophs and auxotrophs B. Aminoautotrophs and amino heterotrophs C. Organotrophs and lithotrophs +D. Autotrophs and heterotrophs E. Phototrophs and chemotrophs 412. Choose an enzyme that takes part in biological oxidation +A. Cytochrome oxidase B. Hyaluronidase C. Urease D. Plasmocoagulase E. Lactase 413. Choose microorganisms that require small concentrations of oxygen for growth. A. Strict aerobes +B. Microaerophiles C. Strict anaerobes D. Aerotolerant 414. Choose bacteria that can grow in the presence and absence of oxygen +A. Facultative anaerobes B. Microaerophiles C. Obligate anaerobes D. Obligate aerobes E. Capnophiles 415. The requirements for nutrient media are all of the following, except A. Isotonicity +B. Optimal color and smell C. An optimal pH and redox potential D. An optimal viscosity, texture, humidity E. The presence of nutrient substances, including growth factors, necessary for the development of microorganisms F. Sterility 416. Choose enzymes, the production of which depends on the presence of substrate in the medium A. Proteolytic B. Saccharolytic C. Constitutive D. Lipolytic +E. Inducible 417. Choose enzymes produced by the cell constantly A. Repressive B. Adaptive +C. Constitutive D. Inducible E. Proteolytic 418. Choose culture media that are used to isolate a certain kind (group) of microorganisms from material containing concomitant microflora A. Enrichment B. Differential diagnostic C. Universal (basic) +D. Selective 419. Choose cultural medium for anaerobes +A. Kitt-Tarocci medium B. Peptone water C. Endo agar D. Yolk salt agar 420. Choose cultural medium for anaerobes A. Endo agar +B. Glucose agar in high column C. Yolk salt agar D. Hiss (Giss) media 421. Choose cultural medium for anaerobes A. Meat-peptone agar B. Yolk salt agar C. Hiss (Giss) media +D. Wilson-Blair agar 422. Heterotrophic microorganisms using dead organic substances, and are independent from another organism A. Parasites +B. Saprophytes C. Autotrophs 423. Heterotrophic microorganisms using organic material from an alive organism +A. Parasites B. Saprophytes C. Autotrophs 424. Choose selective medium for Salmonella +A. Bismuth-sulfite agar B. Endo agar C. Yolk salt agar D. Hiss (Giss) media 425. Joint cultivation of aerobes and anaerobes into hermetic closed space (eg. Fortner plates) is used in A. Physical method B. Chemical method +C. Biological method 426. A number of cultural media for studying of bacteria biochemical activity with further identification A. “biochemical row” B. “differential row” +C. “color row” D. “color medium” 427. Choose nutrient media that are used for differentiation of microorganism species by their enzymatic activity A. Enrichment B. Universal +C. Differential D. Selective 1. Choose medication to treat diphtheria: À. DPT vaccine B. ADT-M-anatoxins, ADT-anatoxins +Ñ. Antitoxin serum D. Monoanatoxins E. Normal Gamma globulins 2. Name the drug that is injected intradermally for determining the delayed-type hypersensitivity in the case of tuberculosis. ### +Tuberculin 3. Óñòàíîâèòåñîîòâåòñòâèå. Establish a correspondence between species of microorganisms and sensitive laboratory animals: 1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 2) Mycobacterium bovis 3) Mycobacterium leprae +2. Rabbits +1. Guinea pigs +3. Armadillos 4. Choose biomaterials used for microbiological diagnostics of leprosy: À. Sputum, nasopharyngeal mucus, pleural exudate B. Blood, cerebrospinal fluid +Ñ. Scrapings from skin granulomas and mucous granulomas D. Sore discharge, transudate E. Feces, urine 5. Choose main clinical forms of leprosy: +À. Tuberculoid B. Intestinal Ñ. Dermal +D. Lepromatous E. Pulmonary 6. Choose characteristics of family Enterobacteriaceae: + À. Gram-negative rods B. Spore forming Ñ. Anaerobic respiration + D. Fermenting glucose to produce acid 7. Fermentation of ### is typical for all members of Enterobacteriaceae family. +Glucose 8. What is the most common laboratory diagnosis method for determination of acute intestinal infection caused by members of Enterobacteriaceae? ### +Bacteriological 9. Name the Genus of bacteria from Enterobacteriaceae family that causes typhoid and paratyphoid fevers, gastroenteritis and septicemias in humans? ### +Salmonella 10. What is the source of infection (reservoir) of Salmonella Typhi bacteria? ### +Human 11. Specific syndrome at the first stage of typhoid fever (increased temperature and confusions) is observed during bacteremia and caused by ### of bacteria. +Endotoxin 12. What are possible routes of tuberculosis transmission? +À. Droplet transmission +B. Foodborne transmission +Ñ. Direct physical contact D. Parenteral transmission E. Sexual contact 13. What is the differential staining method for determining Mycobacterium genus? ### +Ziehl-Neelsen 14. What is the reason of Mycobacteria acid-resistance during staining procedures? +À. Their cell wall contains a lot of lipids and wax B. Their cell wall contains lipopolysaccharides Ñ. Their membrane contains a lot of water D. They contain volutin granules 15. The crucial virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis contained in the cell wall of bacterium is ### factor. +Cord 16. What Mycobacterium species is unable to grow on any nutritious medium (Latin name)? ### ### +Mycobacterium leprae 17. Choose method that does not use in basic laboratoriesmedical practices for tuberculosis diagnostics: À. Bacterioscopical B. Bacteriological + Ñ. Biological D. Allergic E. Genodiagnostic 18. Choose the sourceof typhoid fever infection: À. pets B. wild animals +Ñ. human D. mouse-like rodents 19. What is the reservoir of shigellosis causative agents ###? +Human 20. In human body Shigella species invade epithelial lining of ### intestine causing erosions and ulcers formation. +Large 21. Choose characteristics of dysentery causative agents: +À. Rod-shaped +B. Ferment carbohydrates without producing gases +Ñ. Do not have flagella D. Release hydrogen sulfide E. Spore forming 22. In human body, dysentery pathogens (Shigella) are found: +À. Inside of colon epithelial cells B. On the surface of enterocytes villi Ñ. In the lumen of the small intestine 23. What selective media is used for isolation of Salmonella bacteria from feces ? ### +Bismuth-sulphite 24. Choose pathogenic factors of diarrheagenic Escherichia coli: +À. Heat-labile enterotoxin B. Erythrogenic toxin Ñ. Protein A D. Exfoliative toxin 25. Choose features of Shigella bacteria virulence: À. Caused by flagella motions +B. Caused by lipopolysaccharides +Ñ. Caused by Shiga toxin (cytotoxin) production +D. Caused by invasin (outer membrane protein) production E. Observed in the presence of calcium ions 26. Choose criteria of dividing Escherichia coli species into opportunistic and pathogenic categories: À. Biochemical +B. Antigenic structure Ñ. Cultural D. Morphological E. By sensitivity to bacteriophages 27. What is not characteristic of non-pathogenic Escherichia coli stains normally living in the human intestine: À. They are antagonists of pathogenic microorganisms B. They determine colonization resistance + Ñ. They produce exotoxins D. They participate in proteins and lipids metabolism and bile acids transformations E. They participate in the certain vitamins and hormones synthesis 28. Diarrheagenic Escherichia coli stains can be divided into several categories: enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic, enterohemorrhagic, enteroaggregative and ###. +Enteroinvasive 29. Colonization factor and cholerogen-like enterotoxin are typical pathogenic factors of ### E.coli (category). +Enterotoxigenic 30. Choose cholera causative agent: À. Any Vibrio cholerae +B. Toxigenic Vibrio cholerae Ñ. Any Vibrionaceae D. Nontoxigenic Vibrio cholerae 31. Choose morphological characteristics of Vibrio cholerae: +À. Comma-shaped +B. Monotrichous +Ñ. Non-spore forming D. Ovoid 32. Cholera gems and choleriformic vibrio are distinguished by: +À. Agglutination by Î1 or Î139 serums +B. Lysis by specific bacteriophages Ñ. Oxidase presence D. Cultural properties 33. Choose biomaterials used for accelerated determining of cholera pathogens using RIF test: À. Pus +B. Stool Ñ. Sputum D. Blood serum 34. What is the role of Vibrio cholerae Î139 in human pathology: À. Causes mild diarrhea +B. Causes typical cholera Ñ. Causes food poisoning D. Opportunistic microorganisms 35. What is the role of specific secretory IgA in the organism of the patient with cholera: À. Prevent Vibrio cholerae penetration into blood B. Kill Vibrio cholerae in bloodstream +Ñ. Block Vibrio cholerae attachment to the small intestine epithelium +D. Provide intestine purification from Vibrio cholerae E. Kill Vibrio cholerae in the intestinal lumen 36. Vibrio cholerae strains relate to the germ causing cholera by: À. Sugars decomposition B. Sensitivity to antibiotics +Ñ. Agglutination by Î1 or Î139 serums +D. Sensitivity to diagnostic cholera monophages 37. Choose the feature that is not typical for Clostridium botulinum: À. Gram-positive B. Subterminal-located endospores are present +Ñ. Distinctive capsule is present D. Flagella across the surface are present E. Obligate anaerobic type of energetic metabolism 38. Routes of botulism transmission are foodborne and ### transmission. +Wound 39. The major factors of botulism transmission are: À. Birds' eggs +B. Preserved homemade products +Ñ. Fish and meat products D. Soil, silt E. Open water 40. What cells are primarily damaged by the major virulence factor of Clostridium botulinum? ### +Neuron* 41. Choose the biomaterial that is not used for botulism tests: À. Vomit and gastric washings B. Blood +Ñ. Sputum D. Urine E. Feces 42. Blood of the patient with suspected botulism is tested to detect the presence of ###: +Toxin* 43. Choose medication that is used for emergency prevention of botulism: À. Anatoxin +B. Antitoxic polyvalent serum Ñ. Inactivated vaccine 44. For botulism serotherapy do not use: À. Antitoxic polyvalent serum B. Typical antitoxic serums A, Â, Å +Ñ. Anatoxin 45. The major factors of gastrointestinal tract dysbiosis are all bellow, except: À. Stress + B. age of a person Ñ. Intestinal infections D. Antibacterial drugs treatment E. Long hormone and chemo- and radiotherapy F. Immunodeficiency states 46. Plague pathogen is: À. Gram-negative coccus +B. Ovoid bipolar-stained Gram-negative rod Ñ. Gram-negative curved rod D. Ovoid bipolar-stained Gram-positive rod E. Gram-negative coccobacterium 47. Virulence factors of plague bacteria are all listed except: À. Capsule B. V- and W-, F1- antigens Ñ. Exotoxin (murine toxin) +D. Nucleoproteins E. Endotoxin F. Plasma coagulase, fibrinolysin 48. Cultural properties of anthrax causative agents are: À. Not demanding to growth medium +B. Grow better at 20 C +Ñ. Form R-form colonies D. Require presence of bile in medium E. Grow in the atmosphere with necessary presence of carbon dioxide 49. Complex exotoxin (consisting of lethal factor, edema factor, and protective antigen) and presence of capsule are virulence factors of ### (Latin name). +Bacillus anthracis 50. What are routes of anthrax transmission to humans: À. Sexual +B. Aerogenic Ñ. Transplacental +D. Alimentary +E. Contact 51. Choose the biomaterials used for laboratory diagnostics of anthrax: À. Animal raw material (wool, skin, meat) B. Sore discharge or blister fluid Ñ. Sputum D. Feces +E. All above are correct 52. What is the earlier method of tularemia diagnostics? ### +Allergological 53. Choose the method of specific prevention of tularemia: À. Rodents elimination +B. Risk group vaccination Ñ. Bacilli-carriers elimination D. Bacilli-carriers and rodents elimination E. Universal vaccination 54. Healthy people get infected from the patients with tularemia: À. Seldom +B. Almost never Ñ. Often 55. Select brucellosis causative agents: +À. Ârucellamelitensis +B. Ârucella abortus +Ñ. Ârucellasuis D. Bacillus anthracis E. Yersinia pestis 56. Among the living organisms ### cannot be the reservoir of brucella +Human 57. Select the impossible route of brucellosis transmission: À. Alimentary B. Contact +Ñ. Vector-borne D. Droplet 58. Brucellosis pathogens in lymphoid-macrophage system: À. Incapsulate +B. Reproduce Ñ. Do not reproduce 59. Choose the method that is not used for brucellosis diagnostics: +À. Biological B. Bacteriological Ñ. Serological D. Allergic (Burnet test) 60. What is the purpose of Wright test (agglutination reaction): À. Determination of brucellosis antigens in patient serum B. Allergic diagnostics of brucellosis +Ñ. Determination of brucellosis antibodies in patient serum D. Selection of people to vaccinate against brucellosis E. Determination of phagocytosis completion 61. Morphologically Leptospira bacteria are: À. Thin spiral microorganisms with 3-5 large uneven curls and pointed ends B. Coccobacteria +Ñ. Thin spirals with closely adjacent curls and end hooks. The cell has S- or C-curved shape D. Thin spirals with 8-12 even curls 62. ### species can have S- or C-curved shape due to secondary curves presence +Leptospira 63. Morphologically ### bacteria are thin spiral microorganisms with 3-8 large uneven curvs. +Borrelia 64. The main virulence factor of Borrelia causing the relapsing fever is ### +Endotoxin 65. Select disease caused by spirochetes: À. Typhoid +B. Lyme disease Ñ. Toxoplasmosis D. Q-fever E. Candidiasis 66. Select disease that is not caused by spirochetes: À. Syphilis +B. Q fever Ñ. Leptospirosis D. Lyme disease E. Relapsing fever 67. The reservoir of causative agents of epidemic relapsing fever is ###. +Human 68. Select pathogens of Lyme disease: À. Borrelia recurrentis B. Borrelia persica Ñ. Borrelia caucasica +D. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Borrelia parkeri 69. What are the vectors of Lyme disease? ### +Ticks 70. What is the main laboratory method of relapsing fever diagnosis? ### +Microscopic 71. What clinical biomaterials are used for relapsing fever laboratory diagnosis? ### +Blood 72. All spirochetes are Gram-###. +Negative 73. Out of all spirochetes the ### germ are less subjected to staining with aniline dyes. +Syphilis 74. Morphologically bacteria of genus ### are thin spirals with 8-12 even curvs. +Treponema 75. What are reservoirs of syphilis infection? ### +Human 76. Typical symptom of secondary syphilis is: À. Gumma B. Chancre +Ñ. Rash D. Tabes dorsalis E. Progressive paralysis 77. Gumma, tabes dorsalis, progressive paralysis are characteristics of ### syphilis. +Tertiary 78. Select serological reaction that is not used for syphilis diagnostics in seropositive period: À. Treponema pallidum immobilization test (TPI) B. Fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA) +Ñ. Ascoli’s reaction D. Reagin Wasserman test(RW) E. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) F. Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) 79. Select the medication for specific prevention of syphilis: À. Attenuated vaccine B. Inactivated vaccine +Ñ. Specific prevention is not developed D. Chemical vaccine E. Anatoxin 80. Select the medication for specific prevention of anthrax: À. Inactivated vaccine B. Chemical vaccine +Ñ. Live non-encapsulated spore vaccine D. Specific bacteriophage E. Specific prevention is not developed 81. Gonococci are Gram-### bacteria +Negative 82. What is the major route of gonorrhea transmission? ### +Sexual 83. What is the main method of gonoblenorrhea diagnostics? ### +Bacterioscopic 84. What is the major route of gonoblenorrhea infection transmission in newborns? À. Transplacental B. Intra-uterine +Ñ. Through birth canals D. Sexual 85. What is the main method of laboratory diagnostics of acute gonorrhea? À. Biological +B. Bacterioscopic Ñ. Bacteriological D. Serological 86. What is the main method of chronic gonorrhea diagnostics? À. Biological +B. Bacteriological Ñ. Serological D. Bacterioscopic 87. Select the reason of complete dependence of chlamidya from the host cells: À. Low content of nucleoproteins in the cell +B. Inability to synthesize ATP Ñ. High wax and lipid content in the cell D. Absence of ribosomes 88. Severe, generalized, acute or chronic febrile state with pathogens multiplication in the blood and lymphatic systems is called: À. Bacteremia +B. Sepsis Ñ. Toxinemia 89. Staphylococci do not cause: À. Purulent-inflammatory processes of the skin, lymph nodes B. Purulent-inflammatory processes of the respiratory system organs, eyes, sinuses +Ñ. Ornithosis D. Purulent-inflammatory processes of the central nervous system E. Sepsis F. Food poisoning 90. Staphylococci bacteria have ### ### type of respiration. +Facultative anaerobic 91. Staphylococci bacteria in liquid cultural media grow in the form of: À. Bottom sludge +B. Diffuse clouding Ñ. Wool lumps D. Surface film 92. Choose selective nutrient media for Staphylococcus species: À. Beef-extract agar, beef-extract broth +B. Egg-yolk salt agar, beef-extract broth with 6,5% NaCl Ñ. Blood agar, serum agar D. Endo, Levin, MacConkey media E. Kitt-Tarozzi medium 93. Choose addition to egg-yolk salt agar that provides selective conditions for Staphylococcus species: À. Milk +B. 6,5% or 10% NaCl Ñ. Egg yolk 94. Staphylococcus aureus ### toxin causes newborn pemphigus (scalded skin syndrome)? +Exfoliative 95. What is the main method of Staphylococcus infections diagnosis? ### +Bacteriological 96. A set of type-specific staphylococcal ### is used for intra-species typing of Staphylococcus aureus to find out the source of infection. +Bacteriophages 97. Gram-positive cocci with plasma coagulase isolated from pus can be identified as ### (Latin name). +Staphylococcus aureus 98. What biomaterials is not used for bacteriological diagnostics of Staphylococcus infections: À. Pus B. Sputum, nasopharyngeal mucus Ñ. Sinuses aspirates + D. Hair E. Blood F. CSF 99. Streptococcus species do not cause: À. Rheumatism B. Sepsis +Ñ. Microsporia D. Meningitis E. Scarlet fever 100. Round-shaped, Gram-positive, non-spore forming, facultative anaerobic, catalase-negative, non-motile, pairwise chains in smears are characteristics of bacteria from genus ###. +Streptococcus 101. On blood agar the type of ### hemolysis is typical for most Streptococcus pyogenes strains. +Beta 102. What type of hemolysis on blood agar is typical for most of Streptococcus pneumonia strains ###? +Alpha 103. ### is the toxin of Staphylococcus aureus causing the death of leukocytes and macrophages. +Leukocidin 104. ### is virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes protecting from phagocytosis. +Microcapsule 105. Streptococcus pyogenes caused Scarlet fever differs from other Streptococci of serogroup A in ### toxin producing +Erythrogen* 106. The major pathogen of gas anaerobic infection is: À. Clostridium septicum +B. Clostridium perfringens Ñ. Clostridium novyi D. Clostridium tetani 107. Clostridium perfringens bacteria differ from other gas anaerobic infection pathogens in absence of ### +Flagella 108. Clostridium perfringens bacteria in addition to essential structures have: À. Volutine inclusions +B. Capsule Ñ. Terminal located spores D. Flagella +E. Subterminal and central located spores 109. ### ### is used for emergency prevention and specific therapy of gas gangrene +Antitoxin serum 110. The major reservoir of Clostridium tetani is: À. Air +B. Soil Ñ. Water D. Human body E. Animals and human blood vessels endothelium 111. Tetanus causative agent has ### ### type of respiration. +Obligate anaerob* 112. Choose medications that are used for plan specific prevention of tetanus: À. BCG vaccine B. Fermi vaccine +Ñ. DTP vaccine D. Gamma-globulins, antitoxin serum +E. DT-anatoxins 113. Choose medication that is used for passive emergency prevention of tetanus: À. DTP or DP - vaccines +B. Gamma-globulins, antitoxin serum Ñ. Bacteriophages D. Tetanus anatoxin 114. Óñòàíîâèòåñîîòâåòñòâèå: Establish a correspondence between species of microorganisms and spore forming cell shape and spore location: 1) Clostridium perfringens, 2) Clostridium botulinum, 3) Clostridium tetani +1. Central located spore, fusiform cell +3. Terminal located spore, “drum stick” cell +2. Subterminal located spore, “tennis racket” cell 115. Choose possible reservoirs of meningococcal infection: +À. Patients with meningococcal infections +B. Bacteria-carrier humans Ñ. Pets with meningococcal infections D. Wild animals with meningococcal infections E. Bacilli-carrier wild animals 116. What is the major reservoir of meningococcal infections? +human 117. Choose characteristics of Meningococci: À. Gramm-negative B. Bean-shaped Ñ. Pairwise arrangement in the smear D. Oxidase- and catalase-positive E. Fermenting glucose and maltose to produce acid +F. All of above are correct 118. Meningococci have ### type of respiration. +aerob* 119. Bordetella pertussis bacteria have ### type of respiration. +aerob* 120. Choose microbiological methods of meningococcal pharingitis diagnostics: À. Bacterioscopic +B. Bacteriological Ñ. Serological D. Biological E. Phagotyping F. Allergic 121. What biomaterial is used for microbiological diagnostics of meningococcemia ###? +Blood 122. What biomaterial is used for determining meningococcal pharingitis ### ###? +Nasopharyngeal mucus 123. What pathological biomaterial is used for meningococcal meningitis diagnostics ### ###? +spinal fluid 124. Óñòàíîâèòåñîîòâåòñòâèå Establish a correspondence between meningococcal disease and pathological biomaterial: 1) Meningococcemia 2) Nasopharyngitis, meningococcal-carriage 3) Meningitis +1. Blood +3. CSF (cerebro-spinal fluid) +2. Nasopharyngeal mucus 125. Choose diphtheria pathogens biovars: +À. Gravis +B. Mitis Ñ. Xerosis D. Pneumoniae 126. Choose morphological characteristics of diphtheria causative agents: À. Gram-negative coccobacteria, capsule, non-spore forming, flagellum absence +B. Gram-positive club shaped rods, non-spore forming, flagellum absence Ñ. Gram-positive, fusiform large rods, spore- and capsule-forming, flagellum absence D. Gram-positive large rods, capsule-forming, terminal-located spores, peritrichous 127. What is the major route of diphtheria transmission ###? +Droplet 128. Under microscope Corynebacterium diphtheriae are situated in stained smear: À. Randomly +B. Placed at an angle to each other (X- and Y-shaped) Ñ. Pairwise D. Chain-like E. In the form of “Cigarette packs” 129. Diphtheria pathogens are club-shaped due to presence of ### granules at the cell poles. +Volutine 130. Corynebacterium diphtheriae gravis on tellurite blood agar grow as: À. S-form B. Small smooth convex colonies black in color, with smooth edges Ñ. Small smooth convex colonies, grayish in color, mercury-drop-like +D. Crumbling colonies, grayish-black in color with radial striations and uneven edges, Daisy-flower-shaped 131. Corynebacterium diphtheriae mitis on tellurite blood agar grow in the form of À. “Pebbled leather” +B. Small smooth convex colonies black in color, with smooth edges Ñ. Crumbling colonies, grayish-black in color with radial striations and uneven edges, Daisy-flower-shaped D. Small smooth convex colonies, grayish in color, mercury-drop-like 132. Diphtheria toxin causes: À. Pulmonary edema, severe hypoxia, apnea B. Direct lesions of the nervous tissue and spasmodic contraction of striated muscle +Ñ. Adrenal glands, myocardium and nervous system lesions D. Vision loss, afonia, apnea due to inhibition of acetylcholine releasing in the synapses 133. What is the major method of microbiological diagnostics of diphtheria? +Bacteriological 134. Choose location that is not characteristic of the pathological processes caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria : À. Skin, wounds B. Eye conjunctiva, ears Ñ. Pharynx, tonsils, nose + D. Colon 135. Choose the major diagnostic test for bacteriological diagnosis of diphtheria: +À. Toxigenicity test B. Tellurite blood agar growth test Ñ. Zaks test D. Pizu test E. Sugars decomposition test 136. ### reaction is used for enterobacteria serotyping. +Agglutination 137. Lactose fermentation is typical for: +À. Escherichia coli; B. Shigella flexneri; Ñ. Salmonella Typhi; D. Salmonella Typhimurium. 138. O-antigens of enterobacteria differ according chemical structure of ### molecule. +Lipopolysaccharides 139. H-antigens of enterobacteria are ### according their chemical structure. +Proteins 140. What enterobacteria genus includes obligate resident bacteria of human body normal microbiota? (Latin name)### +Escherichia 141. Enterobacteria species are Gram-###. +Negative 142. Enterobacteria have ###-shaped cells. +Rod 143. Choose enterobacteria type of respiration : À. Aerobic B. Anaerobic +Ñ. Facultative anaerobic D. Capnophiles 144. All enterobacteria species can utilize: +À. Glucose B. Lactose Ñ. Sucrose D. Mannite 145. Pathogenic E. coli strains differ from opportunistic ones in: À. Color of colonies on Endo agar +B. Antigenic properties Ñ. Lactose fermenting ability D. Glucose fermenting ability 146. Clinics and pathogenesis of diseases caused by enteroinvasive E. coli are similar to clinics and pathogenesis of ###. +Shigellosis 147. Clinics and pathogenesis of diseases caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli are similar to ### clinics and pathogenesis. +Cholera 148. What antigen defines serogroups of E.coli? ### +Î 149. What is the major method of shigelosis diagnosis? ### +Bacteriological 150. The causative agents of bacillary dysentery belong to ### genus. (Latin name) +Shigella 151. What is binomial Latin name of Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococci that cause venereal diseases? ### ### +Neisseria gonorrhoeae 152. What is binomial Latin name of food poisoning pathogens resembling tennis racket, with subterminal-located spores? ### ### +Clostridium botulinum 153. What is binomial Latin name of bacteria caused typhoid fever? ### ### +Salmonella Typhi* 153. What is binomial Latin name of causative agent of disease characterized by sudden dehydration and rice-water stool? #### +Vibrio cholerae 154. What is binomial Latin name of Mycobacterium species causing generalized primary chronic disease discovered by G.À.Hansen. Do not grow on cultural media. ### ### +Mycobacterium leprae 155. What is binomial Latin name of pathogen that is Gram-positive club-shaped rod, damage commonly upper respiratory tract,produce exotoxin, and can be determined by positive cystinase test? ### ### +Corynebacterium diphtheriae 156. The most virulent for human Shigella species is: +A. Shigella dysenteriae B. Shigella flexneri C. Shigella boydii D. Shigella sonnei 157. Choose binominal Latin name of causative agent of escherichiosis: A. Salmonella paratyphi A +B. Escherichia C. Mycobacterium D. Escherichia coli E. Shigella sonnei 158. Choose binominal Latin name of microorganism used for preparation of BCG vaccine: A. Mycobacterium +B. Mycobacterium bovis C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Mycobacterium leprae E. Mycobacterium africanum 159. Choose binominal Latin name of microorganism caused appearance of the hard chancre: A. Borrelia reccurentis B. Leptospira interrogans C. Clostridium perfringens + D. Treponema pallidum 160. Choose binomial Latin name of Gram-negative bean-shaped diplococcus causing venereal diseases ### ### +A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Neisseria menengitidis C. Vibrio cholerae D. Mycobacterium leprae E. Treponema pallidum 161. Choose binomial Latin name of food poisoning pathogens resembling tennis racket, with subterminal-located spores ### ### A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Clostridium perfringens C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Escherichia coli + E. Clostridium botulinum 162. What is binomial Latin name of causative agents of disease characterized by sudden dehydration and rice-water stool? A. Salmonella typhi B. Shigella dysenteriae C. Streptococcus pyogenes + D. Vibrio choler 163. Choose binomial Latin name of pathogen that can be finally determined by cystinase test (Pizu tests). ### ### A. Escherichia B. Salmonella typhi C. Vibrio cholerae +D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae E. Staphylococcus epidermidis 164. What is Gram-negative spiral-shaped motile bacteria containing small uniform flexures and stained in pale pink according to Romanowski-Gimsa? +A. Treponema pallidum B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Leptospira interrogans E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 165. What is the Latin name of HIV genus? ### +Lentivirus 166. Influenza virus ultra-structure includes: +À. Fragmented RNA B. Nonfragmented RNA Ñ. Double-stranded RNA D. DNA + E. Supercapsid 167. Choose the antigens of influenza virus type A : À. Hexon-antigen +B. Hemagglutinin (HA) C. Fusion and hemolysis proteins +D. Neuraminidase (NA) +E. M-antigen (matrix protein associated with the NP) 168. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase of influenza virus are ### located antigens. +Superficial 169. Ribonucleoprotein (RNP) and M-matrix protein of influenza virus are ### located antigens. +Internal* 170. What are the types of influenza virus? ###, ###, ### (sign with a letter) +À, +Â, +Ñ 171. Influenza A virus is divided into subtypes, except: A. À (H1N1) +B. À (H3N3) C. À (H2N2) D. À (H3N2) 172. Serological ### ### test is used to determine the type of influenza virus. +Complement fixation 173. Choose features of the protective immune response to influenza: À. Does not form +B. Type-specific +Ñ. Is formed in presence of antibodies to hemagglutinin and neuraminidase D. Is formed in presence of antibodies to ribonucleoproteins +E. Depends significantly on the presence of secretory immunoglobulins A 174. Pandemics, epidemics and sporadic diseases are caused by influenza virus type ###. +À 175. Epidemics and local outbreaks are caused by influenza virus type ###. +Â 176. Sporadic diseases are caused by influenza virus type ###. +Ñ 177. Laboratory diagnostics of influenza virus do not include: À. Viroscopy, RIA, ELISA B. Virological method (virus isolation) +Ñ. Allergic method D. Serological method 178. Swabs from ### are used for viroscopical and virological diagnosis of influenza? +Nasopharyn* 179. Choose biomaterial that is used for serological diagnosis of influenza? +À. Two blood samples (double serum) B. A blood sample (serum) Ñ. Nasopharyngeal washings D. Feces 180. Choose medication that is used for active specific prevention of influenza: +À. Live intranasal vaccine +B. Inactivated virion vaccine +Ñ. Subunit vaccine D. Sabin vaccine E. Salk vaccine 181. Measles virus contains a negative-sense spiral single-stranded ### (abbreviation). +RNA 182. Antigens of measles virus show ### variability. +No 183. What is not the characteristic of measles virus: +À. Includes A, B, C serotypes B. Serotypes are not detected Ñ. Antigens unity of viruses from different geographical areas is observed 184. Measles virus can cause ### formation during cultivation in cellular cultures. +Syncytium 185. Slow infections, multiple sclerosis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can develop several years after ### infection. +Measles 186. Choose medication that is used for active prevention of measles in Russia: À. Inactivated vaccine B. Hemagglutinin-split vaccine +Ñ. Live vaccine 187. Polioviruses , Coxsackievirus and ECHO virus belong to the genus ### in the family ###. +Enterovirus +Picornaviridae 188. Choose morphological and chemical characteristics of polioviruses: +À. Contain positive-sense RNA genome B. Contain negative-sense RNA genome +Ñ. Have capsid with icosahedral symmetry D. Have outer membrane E. Viral particle size is 300-400 nm 189. What are the types of poliovirus? ###, ###, ### (sign a number) +1 +2 +3 190. Choose the impossible route of poliomyelitis transmission: À. Fecal-oral +B. Vector-borne Ñ. Droplet D. Food-borne (water, milk and butter consumption) 191. Poliovirus is most likely to be isolated from ### +Feces 192. Select characteristics of immunity in case of poliomyelitis: +À. Type-specific +B. Humoral +Ñ. Cell-mediated +D. Forms with significant participation of secretory immunoglobulins A E. Forms with DTH T-effectors significant participation 193. Live vaccine against poliomyelitis is given through the ###. +mouth 194. Choose vaccine for active specific prevention of enterovirus infections that is not invited: À. Inactivated poliovirus vaccine +B. ECHO virus vaccine Ñ. Live poliovirus vaccine 195. Choose virus that is not causative agent of viral hepatitis: À. Hepatitis virus except hepatitis A and B B. Hepatitis E virus +Ñ. Epstein-Barr virus D. Hepatitis B virus E. Hepatitis D virus 196. What is the reservoir of hepatitis A virus? #### +human 197. Choose methods that are used for hepatitis A diagnosis: +À. Viroscopy (IEM) B. Virusological method, cell culture contamination +Ñ. Serological method, specific IgM determination D. HBs antigens determination 198. What type of hepatitis virus belongs to the family of Hepadnaviridae, contains DNA, is transmitted parenterally, is not cultivated in cell culture, is oncogenic: ### +Â 199. HBs antigen of hepatitis B virus is ### located antigen. +superficial* 200. Choose quality that doesn't characterize of hepatitis B virus: À. Is not inactivated by treatment at 60 C for several hours +B. Is inactivated by treatment at 60 C for several hours C. Detergents sensitive D. Is not inactivated by treatment at 60 C for 15-20 minutes E. UV resistant 201. Select property that is not characteristic of immunity in case of hepatitis B: À. Humoral B. Cell-mediated Ñ. The role of antibodies to HBsAg is significant + D. Antibodies to HBsAg are not protective E. Protects from repeated infection 202. Hepatitis D virus superinfection occurs in the presence of hepatitis ### virus +Â 203. HIV genome includes two single-strand ### molecules. +RNA 204. HIV virion membrane contains glycoproteins gP with molecular masses of ### and ###. +120 +41 205. gP 120 of HIV virion attaches to the cell membrane in the presence of ### receptor. +CD4 206. HIV penetration to the cell cannot be achieved by: +À. Virogeny B. Membranes fusion Ñ. Receptor endocytosis 207. HIV infection specifically affects ### system of the organism. +Immune 208. What is impossible route of HIV transmission? +A. Droplet +B. Alimentary C. Transplacental D. Hemocontact 209. Choose cells that are not HIV target-cells: À. T-helper cells B. Monocytes, macrophages +Ñ. Hepatocytes D. Langerhans cells E. Endothelial and epithelial cells 210. Choose biomaterials that contains insufficient amount of HIV: À. Blood B. Semen Ñ. Vaginal and cervical discharge D. Brest milk +E. Saliva, urine, lacrimal fluid 211. The goal of HIV infection therapy is: +À. Prevention of disease progression B. Complete curing Ñ. The elimination of the virus from the body 212. Name the form of a virus that exists outside the host cell: +Virion 213. Phased papule rash is the characteristic of ### virus infection. +Measles 214. ### type of virus infection can be characterized by viral DNA integration into the chromosome of the host cell. +Integrative 215. What antigen is the major marker of hepatitis B infection? ### +HBS 216. Name Family of viruses in which the members contain reverse transcriptase enzyme? ### +Retroviruses 217. HIV infects ### subpopulations of T-lymphocytes. +T-helper 218. What laboratory test is the most reliable test in HIV infection determination, an "expert" technique? ### +Immunoblot 219. Choose the reason of liver cells cytolysis in case of viral hepatitis B infection: À. The impact of the virus on hepatocytes +B. Immune response to viral antigens and autoantigens Ñ. Bile ducts lesions 220. Chronicity of pathological process causing cirrhosis is typical characteristic of viral hepatitis ###. +Ñ 221. Choose characteristic of antigenic drift of influenza pathogens: +À. Antigenic variations of the viral hemagglutinins are insignificant B. Is associated with insignificant antigenic variations of viral capsid proteins Ñ. The main reason of pandemics D. The result of recombination of human and bird influenza viruses E. Causes new antigenic types of influenza viruses formations 222. The productive interaction of the virus with the cell results in ### for the cell. +lysis 223. Influenza viruses are mostly cultivated on ### ###. +Chicken embryos 224. ### reaction is used to determine influenza virus in infected chicken embryos. +Hemagglutination 225. What infection disease does orchitis as complication in boys cause ? ### +mumps 226. Damage of medulla oblongata, motor neurons and the front horns of spinal cord is typical for ### pathogenesis. +Poliomyelitis 227. Poliomyelitis vaccine injection provides prevention of ### forms of infection. +Paralytic 228. What type of nucleiñ acid is typical for hepatitis B virus? #### +DNA 229. Hepatitis C virus belongs to ### family. +Flaviviridae 230. What type of nucleiñ acid does in hepatitis C virus present? #### +RNA 231. Hepatitis C virus can hide from immune system due to its high ###. +Variability 232. Multiyear latent progress is characteristic of hepatitis ### virus. +Ñ 233. What type of hepatitis virus does of helper-virus require? ### +D 234. What is the reservoir of parental virus hepatitis? ### +Human 235. Gp120 and gp41 are antigens of ### virus. +HIV 236. What HIV glycoprotein does interact with target-cells provide? ### +120 237. Screening of HIV infection requires ### determination in blood. +Antibodies 238. What is the Latin name of HIV genus? ### A. Enterovirus B. Lyssavirus +C. Lentivirus D. .Deltavirus 239. What type of nucleiñ acid does in influenza virus present? ### +RNA 240. Hepatitis B virus testing of donated blood is carrying out through ### antigen determination. +HBS 241. What is the major route of hepatitis A virus transmission? ### +Fecal-oral 242. Bacteriophages that lyse only one group of bacteria within the species are called ### bacteriophages +Typical 243. Choose ferments of HIV pol-complex: À. Protease, integrase, RNA-ase B. DNA-polymerase, integrase Ñ. DNA-polymerase, protease +D. Reverse transcriptase, RNA-ase, DNA-polymerase, integrase 244. Choose the measles symptoms: À. Jaundice, liver and spleen increase +B. Phased skin rash Ñ. Parotid salivary glands swelling D. Paralysis development 245. What is not typical for hepatitis D virus: À. Defective RNA containing virus B. Reproduction is possible only during presence of hepatitis B virus +Ñ. The virus monoinfection is possible D. The disease develops as coinfection or superinfection in presence of hepatitis B virus 246. Choose the virus that can be isolated from the feces 3 weeks after infection: À. Hepatitis B virus +B. Poliovirus Ñ. Influenza virus D. Measles virus 247. What ferment does in the core of the influenza virus present? À. Reverse transcriptase B. DNA-polymerase +Ñ. RNA- polymerase D. Protease 248.Pathogenic clostridia are (choose wrong answer): A. Gram-positive +B. Gram-negative C. Anaerobes D. Spore-forming 249. The leading factor in the pathogenicity of clostridia A. Capsule B. High biochemical activity +C. Exotoxins D. Endotoxins 250. ### is/are used for active specific prophylaxis of infections caused by pathogenic clostridia +A. Toxoids B. Antitoxic serum and immunoglobulins C. Antimicrobial serum and immunoglobulins D. Antibiotics 251. ### is/are used for specific treatment of infections caused by pathogenic clostridia A. Antibiotics B. Toxoid C. Antimicrobial serum and immunoglobulins +D. Antitoxic serum and immunoglobulins 252. The main causative agent of anaerobic gas gangrene +A. C. perfringens B. C. novyi C. C. septicum D. C. histolyticum 253. The causative agent of tetanus A. C. novyi +B. C. tetani C. C. perfringens D. C. histolyticum 254. The main causative agent of botulism A. C. perfringens B. C. novyi +C. C. botulinum D. C. tetani 255. The basis of the microbiological diagnosis of botulism is +A. Determination of botulotoxins in the test material B. Determination of specific antibodies C. Isolation of pure culture D. Identification of sensitization of the body E. Detection of characteristic rods in the test material 256. Terminal location of the endospore A. B. anthracis B. C. perfringens C. C. botulinum +D. C. tetani 257. C. tetani has a ### location of spore in the cell +A. Terminal B. Subterminal C. Central 258. C. botulinum has a ### location of spore in the cell A. Terminal B. Central +C. Subterminal 259. C. perfringens has a ### location of spore in the cell A. Terminal +B. Central C. Subterminal 260. Subterminal location of spores +A. C. botulinum B. B. anthracis C. C. perfringens D. C. tetani 261. Central location of spore A. C. tetani B. C. botulinum +C. C. perfringens D. E. coli 262. Choose cultural media used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria: A. Endo agar B. Borget-Gengou medium +C. Glucose agar in high column 263. Clostridium tetani causes +A. Toxinemia B. Bacteremia C. Viremia 264. All of following characteristics are typical for C. perfringens, except for A. Lack of mobility +B. The absence of capsule C. Producing of toxins D. Formation of endospore 265. All of following characteristics are typical for C. tetani, except for A. Peritrichous B. The terminal location of the spore +C. The presence of a capsule D. Anaerobe 266. Choose characteristics of exotoxin of C. botulinum +A. It’s neurotoxin B. It’s membranotoxin C. It causes toxic shock syndrome 267. Choose the type of flagella location of motile clostridia A. Amphitrichous +B. Peritrichous C. Lophotrichous D. Monotrichous 268. All of the following microorganisms are strictly anaerobic bacteria, except for A. C. tetani B. C. botulinum +C. C. perfringens 269. Choose biological method used for diagnosis of botulism: +A. Weinberg test B. RIHA C. RIA D. Stormy fermentation test 270. Positive stormy fermentation test is typical for: A. C. tetani +B. C. perfringens C. C. botulinum 271. Choose the name of neurotoxin produced by C. tetani: A. Tetanolysin +B. Tetanospasmin C. Botulotoxin D. Hemolysin 272. Opistotonus is typical for the disease caused by: A. C. perfringens B. C. botulinum +C. C. tetani 273. Choose encapsulated bacteria +A. C. perfringens B. C. botulinum C. C. tetani 274. Choose non-motile clostridia A. C. botulinum +B. C. perfringens C. C. tetani 275. Choose cultural medium which cannot be used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria A. Glucose agar in high column B. Wilson-Blair agar +C. MacConkey agar D. Kitt-Tarocci medium 276. C. botulinum causes botulism characterized by +A. Flaccid paralysis B. Spastic paralysis C. Absence of paralysis 277. C. tetani causes tetanus characterized by A. Flaccid paralysis +B. Spastic paralysis C. Absence of paralysis 278. Choose cultural media used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria A. Endo agar B. MacConkey agar +C. Kitt-Tarocci medium 279. Choose cultural media used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria +A. Wilson-Blair agar B. Endo agar C. Lowenstein-Jensen medium 280. Choose the causative agent of syphilis: A. Treponema denticola B. Treponema vincentii +C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema carateum E. Treponema bryantii 281. All of the following properties are characteristic of the causative agent of syphilis, except for: A. movable + B.has 3-10 irregular spirals C. Gram negative D. poorly stained with aniline dyes 282. All of the following factors are virulence factors of the causative agent of syphilis, except for: A. A high invasiveness +B. A exotoxin C. A resistance to the complement system D. A resistance to phagocytosis E. A antigenic variation 283. The infection source of syphilis: A. A bacteria carrier +B. A sick person C. A household items of the patient D. A fresh blood of the patient E. A infected food 284. Transmission pathway of syphilis: A. sexual, through insect bites B. alimentary, contact +C. sexual, transplacental D. by airborne 284. The pathogenesis of syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except for: +A. A fibrinous inflammation B. A generalization of infection C. A long-term persistence D. A development of T-hypersensitivity 285. Congenital syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except for: A. is possible in the first trimester of pregnancy +B. is possible in the second trimester of pregnancy C. can be prevented D. prevention method - treatment of a pregnant E. the outcome of infection depends on the stage of pathogenesis in the mother 286. Early congenital syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except: +A. is detected during the first 2 years of life B. An infection occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy C. A mother has primary syphilis D. The lesions correspond to the tertiary period E. A typical manifestation is the Hutchinson triad (keratitis, barrel-shaped teeth, deafness) 287. Late congenital syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except: A. is characterized by stillbirth +B. is detected after 5-20 years C. A lesions correspond to the primary period D. A lesions correspond to the secondary period E. induces intense immunity 288. The pathogenesis of primary syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except: A. A penetration through damaged mucous membranes and skin B. A formation of hard chancre C. A regional lymphadenitis + D. A granulomatous inflammation 289. The pathogenesis of secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except: A. A generalization of infection +B. The formation of secondary hard chancres C. The lesions to the skin and mucous membranes (rash) D. The lesions to the lymph nodes, central nervous system, joints, etc. E. A spirochemia 290. The pathogenesis of tertiary syphilis is characterized by all of the following properties, except: +A. A spirochemia B. An insignificant amount of spirochetes in the body C. The development of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction D. The formation of gummas in the cardiovascular system, liver, central nervous system, skin E. The significant violations of the functions of internal organs 291. Microbiological diagnosis of secondary and tertiary syphilis is based on: A. A detection of delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions +B. An antibody detection C. An isolation a pure culture D. A detection of pathogen E. is not carried out 293. Microbiological diagnosis of primary syphilis is based on: A. An isolation f pure culture +B. A dark-field microscopy of the contents of chancre and node aspirate C. A detection of antibodies D. A dark-field microscopy of the contents of the elements of the rash 294. Nonspecific reactions that are used for the serodiagnosis of syphilis: A. A microprecipitation reaction (RMP), ELISA +B. A microprecipitation reaction (RMP), Wasserman test C. ELISA, immune blotting D. Reaction of Indirect Hemagllutination, reaction of indirect Immunofluorescence E. RIBT, reaction of indirect Immunofluorescence 295. Specific reactions that are used for serodiagnosis of syphilis: A. A microprecipitation reaction (RMP), ELISA B. Wassermann test, Reaction of Indirect Hemagllutination C. ELISA, Wassermann test, RMP +D. Reaction of immobilization of pale treponema, Reaction of Indirect Hemagllutination, ELISA E. Reaction of immobilization of pale treponema, RMP, Wassermann test 296. Specific prevention and therapy of syphilis is: A. use of penicillin +B. not developed C. use of contraceptives D. use of a specific vaccine E. use of specific immunoglobulin 297. What of the following viruses can be isolated from feces during 3 or more weeks after infection? +A. Poliovirus B. Hepatitis B virus C. Influenza virus D. Measles virus 298. Polioviruses, Coxsackieviruses, ECHOviruses belong to the family ### genus ###; A. Retroviridae Lentivirus B. Rhabdoviridae Lyssavirus +C. Picornaviridae Enterovirus D. PicornaviridaeHepatovirus 299. The immune response against poliomyelitis is characterized by all of the following properties except: A. humoral +B. cell-mediated C. type-specific D. is formed with significant involvement of secretory immunoglobulin 300. Choose a method of introduction of a live polio vaccine: A. subcutaneously B. intramuscularly C. intravenously +D. oral administration 301. The poliomyelitis virus in morphology, size, chemical composition is characterized by the following properties: +A. a single-stranded positive-RNA containing virus; has spherical shape with a diameter of 27 nm and a icosahedral type of symmetry of capsid ; B. a single-stranded negative-RNA containing virus; is surrounded by an envelope and has a bullet-shaped form with a length of 300-400 nm ; C. a single-stranded positive-RNA containing virus; is surrounded by an envelope and has a spherical shape with a diameter of 42 nm. 302. All of the following viruses belong to the genus Enterovirus except for: A. Coxsackie virus B. Echoviruses C. Poliovirus +D. Hepatitis B virus 303. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease virus belongs to the family ### genus ###: À. Picornaviridae Enterovirus +B. Picornaviridae Aphtovirus C. Retroviridae Lentivirus D. PicornaviridaeHepatovirus 304. What viruses cause enteroviral vesicular stomatitis with exanthem, as well as diseases of the throat (Herpangina): A. Coxsackie B virus +B. Coxsackie A virus C. Poliovirus D. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease virus 305. Choose a specific prevention of diseases caused by ECHO viruses: A. an introduction of a vaccine containing attenuated ECHO viruses B. an introduction of inactivated polio vaccine C. an introduction of a vaccine containing inactivated ECHO viruses. +D. is not developed 306. All of the following properties belong to the morphological properties of ECHO viruses except for: A. small size of virion with a diameter of 25-30 nm B. an icosahedral type of symmetry of capsid +C. helical type of symmetry of capsid D. lack of supercapsid 307. What genus does not belong to the Picornaviridae family? +À. Lyssavirus B. Aphtovirus C. Enterovirus D. Hepatovirus 308. Choose the measures used to treat poliomyelitis: A. an introduction of inactivated polio vaccine B. an administration the antibiotics +C. a symptomatic treatment D. an introduction of oral polio vaccine 309. Choose the source of infection of the hand-foot-and-mouth disease: +A. cattle B. virus carrier C. sick person and a virus carrier D. only a sick person 310. How many types is the polio virus divided into: À. one B. two +C. three D. five 311. Choose the mechanism of transmission of poliovirus: +A. Fecal-oral B. Airborne C. Vector-borne D. Direct contact E. Vertical 312. For the prevention what forms of the poliomyelitis is an inactivated polio vaccine used? +A. Paralytic B. Abortive C. Meningeal 313. Poliovirus can be transmitted by all of the following pathways and the factors except for: A. Fecal-oral B. Airborne +C. Vector-borne D. by infected water, milk, butter 314. All of the following vaccines have been developed for the specific prophylaxis of enterovirus infections except: +A. a vaccine against ECHOviruses B. a killed poliovirus vaccine C. a live poliovirus vaccine 315. A patient infected with the poliovirus with the greatest constancy secretes the viruses with the following biological material: A. lymph B. blood +C. feces D. cerebrospinal fluid 316. Choose an infection disease the pathogenesis of that is characterized with the predominant lesion of motor neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord: A. Flu B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis A +D. Poliomyelitis 317. What does the composition of the oral polio vaccine (OPV) includes? +A. The attenuated poliovirus strains B. The inactivated ECHO viruses C. The inactivated polio viruses D. The antibodies against polioviruses 318. What does the poliovirus genome consists of? +A. a single-stranded positive sense RNA B. a single-stranded negative-sense RNA C. a double-stranded linear DNA D. a double-stranded circular DNA 319. Choose the source of infection of poliomyelitis: A. pigs B. cattle +C. a sick person and a virus carrier D. only a sick person 320. Choose an acute zoonotic infectious disease characterized by ulcerative (aphthous) lesions of the oral mucosa and of the skin of the lower and upper extremities: +A. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease B. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies D. Hepatitis A 321. Coxsackie viruses belong to the family ### genus ###: À. PicornaviridaeHepatovirus B. Picornaviridae Aphtovirus C. Retroviridae Lentivirus +D. Picornaviridae Enterovirus 322. Choose the causative agent of Hand-foot-and-mouth disease: A. poliovirus +B. Coxsackievirus A Ñ. Coxsackievirus B D. ECHO viruses 323. Choose a specific prevention of diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses: A. the introduction of a vaccine containing inactivated Coxsackieviruses A B. the introduction of an oral polio vaccine C. the introduction of a vaccine containing attenuated Coxsackieviruses A and B +D. is not developed 324. The appearance of painful, irregularly shaped bright red superficial ulcerations (aphthae), sometimes merging with each other, is characteristic of a disease caused by: A. Poliovirus B. ECHO viruses +C. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease virus 325. What genus does not belong to the Picornaviridae family? À. Aphtovirus +B. Lentivirus C. Enterovirus D. Rinovirus 326. Hepatitis A virus belong to the family ### genus ###; A. Family Hepadnaviridae, Genus Orthohepadvirus +B. Family Picornaviridae, Genus Hepatovirus C. Family Picornaviridae, Genus Enterovirus D. Family Togaviridae, Genus Deltavirus E. Family Caliciviridae, Genus Hepacivirus 327. Choose a morphological property of hepatitis A virus: A. a DNA-containing virus B. a enveloped virus C. has a helical type of symmetry +D. RNA-containing virus 328. Hepatitis A has all of the following characteristics except: A. is an anthroponotic infection B. is transmitted by fecal-oral mechanism C. is an intestinal infection D. is a "dirty hands" disease +E. is an especially dangerous infection 329. The pathogenesis of hepatitis A is characterized by: +A. the cytopathic effect on hepatocytes B. a formation of virus carrier state C. a chronic disease D. a persistent viraemia E. a virogenation 330. A patient with hepatitis A is most dangerous to others: A. immediately after infection +B. at the end of the incubation period, in the preicteric period C. during the preicteric, icteric periods D. during the period of convalescence E. throughout the entire period of the disease 331. Hepatitis E has most unfavorable prognosis for: A. young children +B. pregnant women C. school children and adolescents 332. All of the following viral hepatitis belong to hepatitis with a parenteral transmission mechanism except A. hepatitis G B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis D +D. hepatitis A E. hepatitis C 333. Choose viral hepatitis with fecal-oral mechanism of transmission: A. hepatitis B, hepatitis C B. hepatitis C, hepatitis G C. hepatitis B, hepatitis D +D. hepatitis A, hepatitis E E. hepatitis E, hepatitis B 334. Hepatitis B virus belong to the family ### genus ###; A. Family Picornaviridae, Genus Enterovirus +B. Family Hepadnaviridae Genus Orthohepadnavirus C. Family Picornaviridae, Genus Hepatovirus D. not classified E. Family Togaviridae, Genus Deltavirus 335. Choose the mechanism of transmission of hepatitis B: A. Fecal-oral B. Airborne C. Vector-borne +D. Direct contact 336. Presence of what serological marker indicates active HBV replication and risk of transmission of infection: A. HBs-Ag B. HBc-Ag C. antibodies against HBe-Ag +D. HBe-Ag E. antibodies against HBs-Ag 337. Vaccination of a newborn against hepatitis B in a maternity hospital should be carried out: +A. in the first 24 hours of life B. on the 2nd day of life C. on the 3rd day of life D. on the 4th day of life E. upon discharge from the maternity hospital 338. Active specific prophylaxis of hepatitis B is the introduction of ???: A. a lamivudine B. an interferon +C. a recombinant vaccine (Engerix B et al.) D. a live vaccine E. an immunoglobulin (not later than 24 hours) 339. Choose a characteristic of Hepatitis C: +A. a long-term latent course of the disease B. especially severe course in pregnant women C. a mono-infection is not possible D. a formation a persistent post-infectious immunity E. mostly fulminant form of infection 340. Choose the mechanism of transmission of hepatitis C: A. Fecal-oral B. Airborne C. Vector-borne +D. Direct contact 341. Hepatitis C is often characterized by : A. a development of fulminant form (malignant) +B. a development of a chronic infection C. a recovery 342. All of the following features are characteristic of the hepatitis D virus except: A. is a defective virus B. cannot cause monoinfection C. a reproduction of the hepatitis D virus only in the presence of HBV +D. a reproduction of the hepatitis D virus in the presence of HCV E. the composition of supercapsid of virus includes ÍBs-Ag 343. Superinfection with a delta virus poses a danger to patients: A. with hepatitis A +B. with hepatitis B C. with hepatitis C 344. The human immunodeficiency viruses belongs to the family: +A. Retroviridae B. Picornaviridae C. Togaviridae D. Reoviridae 345. HBs antigen of the hepatitis B virus is antigen of ??? +A. a super capsid B. a nucleocapsid C. a core 346. The HIV genome includes two single-stranded molecules of +A. RNA B. DNA C. RNA and DNA 347. The target cell receptor for HIV is ???: A. CD 22 B. CD 19 C. CD 8 +D. CD 4 E. CD 3 348. Choose the primary manifestation of HIV infection: A. pneumocystis pneumonia B. generalized cytomegalovirus infection C. atypical mycobacteriosis +D. lymphadenopathy E. flu 349. Choose the method that used for a screening serodiagnosis of HIV infection: A. Immune electron microscopy (IEM) B. Hemagglutination inhibition tests C. PCR +D. ELISA test 350. Choose the morphological property of hepatitis C virus: A. does not have a super capsid B. has a helical type of symmetry of capsid C. is defective virus +D. is RNA-containing virus 351. HIV-1 integrase has a pivotal role in the integration of viral DNA into: +A. the genome of the affected cell (T helper) B. ribosomes of affected cell C. cytoplasmic membrane of the affected cell D. the cell wall of the affected cell 352. Hepatitis D virus belongs to the family ### genus ###: +A. Family Togaviridae, genus Deltavirus B. is not classified C. Family Caliciviridae, genus Hepacivirus D. Family Picornaviridae, genus Hepatovirus E. Family Picornaviridae, genus Enterovirus 353. Hepatitis C virus belong to the family ### genus ###: A. Family Hepadnaviridae, genus Orthohepadnavirus +B. Family Flaviviridae, genus Hepacivirus C. Family Togaviridae, genus Deltavirus D. Family Togaviridae, genus Flavivirus E. Family Caliciviridae, genus Hepacivirus 354. Vaccine for specific hepatitis B prophylaxis contains: A. DNA of virus B. HBe-Ag C. HBc-Ag +D. HBs-Ag E. antibodies against HBs-Ag 355. Reverse transcriptase (revertase) of HIV catalyze a reaction of synthesis +A. a complementary DNA strand using RNA as a template B. a complementary DNA strand using single-stranded DNA as a template C. a complementary RNA strand using RNA as a template 356. HIV is characterized by ???: A. a teratogenicity +B. T-lymphotropic C. an oncogenicity D. an antigenic uniformity E. a low virulence 357. Choose the living system that is used to cultivate HIV in vitro A. chicken embryos B. intracerebral infection of sucker mice C. cell cultures CD8+ T cells +D. cell cultures CD4+ T cells E. is not cultivated 358. Choose the protein or glycoprotein of HIV that responsible for interaction with target cells: A.p17 B.p7 +C. gp120 D.p24 E. p9 359. The human immunodeficiency viruses belong to the family ### genus ### A. Family Rhabdoviridae, Genus Lyssavirus +B. Family Retroviridae, Genus Lentivirus C. Family Filoviridae, Genus Marburgvirus D. Family Filoviridae, Genus Ebolavirus E. Family Paramyxoviridae, Genus Rubulavirus 360. Choose the pathway of HIV transmission from infected mother to child: A. only vertical pathway B. only during childbirth C. only during breastfeeding +D. vertical pathway, during childbirth, during breastfeeding E. is not possible 361. Choose the system of human body that is predominantly affected during HIV infection +A. the immune system B. the circulatory system C. the nervous system D. the endocrine system 362. The amount of HIV that is insufficient for infection is contained in: A. blood B. semen C. vaginal secretions D. breast milk + E. saliva, urine, lacrimal fluid 363. All of the following cells are target cells for HIV except: A. T-helper B. monocytes, macrophages +C. hepatocytes D. Langerhans cells 364. The hepatic cell cytolysis during viral hepatitis B is associated with: A. a direct lesion of hepatocytes by virus +B. a formation of an immune response against viral antigens that cause a lesion of hepatocytes C. a lesion of the bile ducts 365. What subpopulations of T-lymphocytes are target cells for HIV? +A. T-helper cells B. T-suppressor cells C. T-killer cells D. T-regulator cells 366. The formation of what proteins are encoded in the gag genes of HIV: +A. structural proteins of the virus - p17, p24, p7, p9 B. viral enzymes C. envelope proteins gp 120 and gp 41 367. The formation of what proteins are encoded in the ent genes of HIV: A. structural proteins of the virus - p17, p24, p7, p9 B. viral enzymes +C. envelope proteins gp 120 and gp 41 368. The formation of what proteins are encoded in the pol genes of HIV: A. structural proteins of the virus - p17, p24, p7, p9 +B. viral enzymes C. envelope proteins gp 120 and gp 41 369. The flu virus belongs to the family: +A. Orthomyxoviridae B. Rhabdoviridae C. Paramyxoviridae D. Flaviviridae 370. Mumps virus belongs to the genus: A. Avulavirus B. Respirovirus C. Feriavirus +D. Rubulavirus E. Henipavirus 371. Choose the type of nucleic acid of the influenza virus: +A. eight single-stranded RNA segments; B. a single-stranded circular RNA; C. a double-stranded RNA; D. a single-stranded linear RNA 372. What disease the appearance of Koplik’s spots is characteristic for: A. herpes +B. measles C. rubella D. mumps E. parainfluenza 373. What is used for the specific prevention of mumps: +A. a live vaccine B. a killed vaccine C. a subvirion vaccine D. interferons E. antibiotics 374. All of the following methods are used for laboratory diagnosis of influenza except: A. a viroscopy (RIF, rhinocytoscopy), ELISA B. a virological method (a virus isolation) +C. an allergological method D. a serological method 375. Choose the entry gates of the influenza virus: +A. mucous membrane of the upper respiratory tract; B. mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract; C. blood; D. skin 376. Choose the transmission mechanism of measles: A. Fecal-oral; B. Vector-borne; C. Direct contact; +D. Airborne. 377. Choose the main pathway of transmission of mumps: A. by contaminated water +B. by respiratory drop nuclei C. by direct contact D. transplacental E. alimentary 378. Choose the serological reaction that is used to identify the influenza virus? A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay B. The agglutination reaction C. The precipitation reaction +D. The indirect hemagglutination reaction E. The complement fixation reaction 379. What drugs are prescribed for contact persons to protect them from measles? +A. measles immunoglobulins B. a measles vaccine C. a normal human immunoglobulin D. Antibiotics E. Acyclovir 380. Choose the morphological properties of the influenza virus: A. is a simple virus with the icosahedral type of symmetry of capsid B. is an enveloped virus with the icosahedral type of symmetry of capsid C. is a simple virus with the helical type of symmetry of capsid +D. is an enveloped virus with the helical type of symmetry of capsid 381. Choose the internal antigens of the influenza virus: A. N-Ag (NA) B. H-Ag (HA) C. M-Ag D. NP-Ag E. A and B are correct +F. C and D are correct 382. Choose the external antigens of the influenza virus: A. N-Ag (NA) B. H-Ag (HA) C. M-Ag D. NP-Ag +E. A and B are correct F. C and D are correct 383. Choose an antigen of the influenza virus that is responsible for degradation of the protective layer of mucus in the respiratory tract and contributes to the release of new viral generation from the cell: +A. N-Ag (Neuraminidase enzyme) B. H-Ag (hemagglutinin) C. M-Ag (matrix protein) D. NP-Ag (nucleoprotein) 384. Choose the virus that does not have the neuraminidase activity: A. The influenza virus B. The mumps virus +C. The measles virus 385. What type of the influenza virus causes pandemics, epidemics, sporadic diseases? +A. Type A B. Type B C. Type C 386. The mumps virus belongs to the family: +A. Paramyxoviridae B. Orthomyxoviridae C. Rhabdoviridae D. Flaviviridae 387. Choose the morphological properties of the measles virus: A. is a DNA-containing enveloped virus; +B. is a single-stranded (-) RNA-containing enveloped virus; C. is a simple DNA-containing virus. 388. Influenza A viruses are divided into subtypes, except for: A. H1N1 +B. H3N3 C. H2N2 D. H3N2 389. What is used for active measles prevention? A. a killed vaccine B. MMR-vaccine C. Measles live attenuated vaccine D. A and B are correct +E. B and C are correct 390. Choose the processes that provide the variability of surface antigens of influenza virus: A. conjugation; B. modification; +C. drift and shift; D. transformation. 391. The primary reproduction of the influenza virus occurs: A. in the gastrointestinal tract; B. in the blood; +C. in the epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract; D. in the endothelium of blood vessels 392. Choose the source of infection of mumps: A. medical instruments +B. a virus carrier C. a sick person D. a sick animal 393. Choose the source of infection of measles: A. medical instruments +B. a virus carrier C. a sick person D. a sick animal 394. What clinical material should you take from a patient for serological diagnosis of influenza? +A. two blood samples (“paired sera”) B. one blood sample (serum) C. a nasopharyngeal swab D. feces 395. What antigens play a major role in the development of the immunity response against influenza? +A. N-Ag (Neuraminidase enzyme) and H-Ag (hemagglutinin) B. M-Ag (matrix protein) C. Polymerase proteins D. NP-Ag (nucleoprotein) 396. The cells of all of the following organs are sensitive to the mumps virus except: A. Gonads B. Pancreas C. CNS +D. Liver 397. Choose the antigen of the influenza virus that is responsible for a binding to the cell surface receptors to initiate infection: A. N-Ag (Neuraminidase enzyme) B. M-Ag (matrix protein) +C. H-Ag (hemagglutinin) D. NP-Ag (nucleoprotein) 398. What a influenza vaccine consists of temperature-sensitive mutants that can replicate in cooler nasal passages (33C), but not in warm lower respiratory tract (37C)? A. Chemical (subunit) flu vaccine B. Killed vaccine +C. Live attenuated intranasal vaccine 399. What drug inhibits the release of viruses from infected cell (inhibition of NA) and is used to treat of patients with flu? A. Remantadine B. Amantadine +C. Zanamavir D. ?-IFN 400. What drug is prescribed in the severe cases of flu? A. Remantadine +B. Homological anti-influenza human Ig C. Zanamavir D. ?-IFN 401. How many serotypes of the measles virus is there? +A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 402. Choose the antigen of the measles virus that is responsible for virus penetration into the cell (fusion of membranes of target cell and virus) and fusion of target cells into syncytium: +A. F-Ag B. M-Ag C. H-Ag D. NP-Ag 403. What drug inhibits the uncoating of viruses in the infected cell and is used to treat of patients with flu? +A. Remantadine B. Homological anti-influenza human Ig C. Zanamavir D. ?-IFN 404. The most virulent streptococcal species is: A. Streptococcus mutans + B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus salivarius 405. The most virulent staphylococcal species is: + A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Staphylococcus hominis 406. In microscope staphylococci are seen like: + A. Gram (+) grape-like arranged cocci B. Gram (-) diplocicci C. Gram (+) cocci arranged in chain D. Gram (-) coccobacilli 407. In microscope streptococci are seen like: A. Gram (+) grape-like arranged cocci B. Gram (-) diplocicci + C. Gram (+) cocci arranged in chain D. Gram (-) coccobacilli 408. The toxin of Streptococcus pyogenes caused the Scarlet fever is: + A. erythrogenic exotoxin B. endotoxin C. hemolysin D. leucocidin 409. The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus caused the scalded skin syndrome is: + A. exfoliative toxin B. enterotoxin C. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin D. hemolysin 410. The most important test for Staphylococcus aureus definition is: + A. plasma coagulase test B. pigment production C. resistance to high concentration of NaCl D. ability to grow on a simple medium 411. Streptococcus pyogenes refers to the Lancefield’s serogroup: + A. A B. B C. C D. D 412. Corynebacterium diphtheriae are arranged in smear: + A. at acute angles to one other B. lie parallel to each other C. form a chain D. randomly 413. The most important factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae pathogenicity is: + A. exotoxin production B. endotoxin production C. invasiveness into the body’s tissue D. penetration into the blood 414. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is transmitted most commonly by the following mechanism: + A. respiratory B. fecal-oral C. Hemocontact D. vertical 415. Tuberculosis may be caused by: + A. Mycobacterium bovis B. Mycobacterium smegmatis C. Mycobacterium avium D. Mycobacterium intracellular416. The simplest laboratory test for detection of Mycobacterium in a sputum is: + A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. Gram stain C. inoculation on Lowenstein-Jensen medium D. inoculation on blood agar 417. Influenza virus ultrastructure includes: + A. Fragmented RNA B. Nonfragmented RNA C. Double-stranded RNA D. DNA 418. Hemagglutunun and neuraminidase of influenza virus are ### located antigens. + Superficial* 419. Nucleoprotein (NP) and M-matrix protein of influenza virus are ### located antigens. + Internal* 420. Choose properties of hemagglutinin (H-antigen) of influenza virus: +A. Induces protective anti-hemagglutinins formation B. Conservative C. Induces non-protective antibodies formation D. Define the type of an influenza virus 421. What is the type of influenza virus causing disease in human? ### +À 422. Influenza A virus is divided into subtypes, except: À.H1N1 +B. H3N3 C. H2N2 D. H3N2 423. What serological test is used to determine types of influenza virus? ### ### ### +Complement fixation reaction 424. Choose features of postvaccine immune response to influenza: A. Does not form +B. Is formed in presence of antibodies to hemagglutinin and neuraminidase C. Is formed in presence of antibodies to ribonucleoproteins D. Intense, long-lasting 425. Pandemics, epidemics and sporadic diseases is caused by influenza virus type ###. +À 426. Local epidemics and outbreaks but no pandemics is caused by influenza virus type ###. +Â 427. Sporadic diseases onlyis caused by influenza virus type ###. +Ñ 428. What biomaterial is used for microscopical and virologic diagnostics of influenza? ### ### +Nasopharyngeal swab* 429. Choose biomaterial that is used for serological diagnostics of influenza? +A. Two blood samples (double serum) B. A single blood sample (serum) C. Nasopharyngeal swabs D. Sputum 430. Choose medications which may be used for prevention of influenza: +Live intranasal vaccine +B. Inactivated virion vaccine +C. Subunit vaccine D. Sabin vaccine E. Salk vaccine 431. Measles virus contains a negative-sense spiral single-stranded ###. +RNA 432. Superficial antigens of measles virus show: +A. No variability B. High variability C. No protection against disease D. High protection against disease 433. What is not characteristic of measles virus: +A. Presence of the A, B, C serotypes B. Serotypes are not detected C. Antigens unity of viruses from different geographical areas is observed 434. The late clinical symptoms appearance in course of diphtheria disease are: + A. cardiac and peripheral nerves disturbance B. sore throat C. abdominal ache D. high temperature 435. The single animal in that leprosy disease may be developed is ### + armadillo* 436. Any Escherichia coli bacterium is resident of intestinal microbiota and cannot cause an enteric disease. A. It is true + B. It is not true 437. Óñòàíîâèòüñîîòâåòñòâèå: Putcorrespondencebetween the stages of typhoid fever pathogenesis and the time of the stage development: a) excretion, b) invasion, c) digestion d) bacteremia, e) convalescence. + c, b, d, a, e. 438. Morphologically meningococci are: + A. Gram (-) diplococci B. Gram (+) cocci C. Gram (+) bacilli D. Gram (-) bacilli 439. Morphologically germ of syphilis is: + A. Gram (-) spiral shaped bacterium B. Gram (+) diplococcus C. Gram (+) bacilli D. Gram (-) bacilli 440. Morphologically germ of tetanus is: + A. Gram (-) spiral shaped bacterium B. Gram (+) diplococcus C. Gram (+) spore forming bacillus D. Gram (-) no spore forming bacillus 441. The major pathogenic factor of the cholera causative agent is: + A. exotoxin B. endotoxin C. invasiveness D. spore formation 442. Name diseases caused by pathogenic Clostridia: + A. tetanus + B. botulism C. sore throat D. meningitis 443. Meningococcal infection is transmitted by the following ways: + A. droplet B. sexual contact C. alimentary D. transplacental 444. Polioviruses, Coxsackie virus and ECHO viruses belong to the genus ### in the family ### +Enterovirus +Picornairidvae 445. Choose morphological and chemical characteristics of polioviruses: +A. Contain positive-sense RNA genome B. Contain negative-sense RNA genome C. Viral particle size is 300-400 nm D. Have outer membrane 446. Choose the impossible route of poliomyelitis transmission: A. Fecal-oral +B. Vector-borne C. Droplet D. Food-borne (water, milk and butter consumption) 447. Name Ag of hepatitis B virus that is found into patient's blood as a marker of virus infection. +ÍÂs